Prenatal Care — MCQs

Prenatal Care Indian Medical PG Practice Questions and MCQs

Question 581: Which of the following is a sign that is not typically associated with pregnancy?

A. Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the vagina or cervix)
B. Dalrymple sign (Correct Answer)
C. Braxton Hicks contractions (irregular uterine contractions)
D. Hegar's sign (softening of the lower part of the uterus)

Explanation: ***Dalrymple sign*** - **Dalrymple sign** is the **widening of the palpebral fissure** (eyelid retraction), typically associated with **Grave's disease** and hyperthyroidism, not pregnancy. - Its presence suggests a thyroid disorder rather than a normal physiological change of pregnancy. *Chadwick's sign (bluish discoloration of the vagina or cervix)* - **Chadwick's sign** is a common **early presumptive sign of pregnancy**, caused by increased vascularity and blood flow to the pelvic organs. - This bluish discoloration is due to venous congestion in the cervix and vagina. *Braxton Hicks contractions (irregular uterine contractions)* - **Braxton Hicks contractions** are **intermittent, painless uterine contractions** that occur throughout pregnancy, especially in the third trimester. - They are considered "practice contractions" and are a normal physiological finding as the uterus prepares for labor. *Hegar's sign (softening of the lower part of the uterus)* - **Hegar's sign** is a probable sign of pregnancy, characterized by the **softening of the lower uterine segment**, allowing it to be easily compressed. - This sign is typically detectable between 6 and 12 weeks of gestation due to hormonal changes.

Question 582: After taking MMR live vaccine, conception should not occur within ?

A. 4 weeks (Correct Answer)
B. 8 weeks
C. 2 weeks
D. 10 weeks

Explanation: ***4 weeks*** - The **MMR (measles, mumps, and rubella) vaccine** is a **live attenuated vaccine**, meaning it contains weakened forms of the viruses. - To minimize any theoretical risk of congenital rubella syndrome, women are advised to **avoid conception for at least 4 weeks** (or one month) after receiving the MMR vaccine. *2 weeks* - This period is generally considered too short for ensuring the complete clearance of the attenuated live virus from the woman's system before conception. - The standard recommendation for live attenuated vaccines like MMR is typically longer due to potential, though rare, viral transmission risks to the fetus. *8 weeks* - While a longer waiting period like 8 weeks would certainly be safe, it is **not the minimum recommended duration** by public health guidelines. - Waiting 4 weeks (one month) is sufficient and a more practical guideline for most women planning conception. *10 weeks* - This duration is significantly longer than the standard recommendation and is not necessary to ensure safety after an MMR vaccination. - The 4-week guideline balances safety with practicality for reproductive planning.

Question 583: Length of the fetus is 40 cm. What would be the age of gestation?

A. 4 months
B. 6 months
C. 8 months (Correct Answer)
D. 7 months

Explanation: ***8 months*** - At **8 months** of gestation (approximately **32 weeks**), the average crown-heel length of a fetus is about **40-43 cm**. - Foetal growth charts and developmental milestones indicate a close correlation between this length and the corresponding gestational age. *4 months* - At **4 months** of gestation (approximately **16 weeks**), the fetus is much smaller, typically around **12-15 cm** in crown-heel length. - Significant organ development is underway, but growth in length is not as rapid as in later trimesters. *6 months* - At **6 months** of gestation (approximately **24 weeks**), the fetus measures around **28-30 cm** in crown-heel length. - This stage is marked by significant weight gain and further development of organs, but it is still short of 40 cm. *7 months* - At **7 months** of gestation (approximately **28 weeks**), the fetus's crown-heel length is typically around **35-38 cm**. - While closer to 40 cm, it usually falls slightly short, with the average 40 cm length being more characteristic of 8 months.

Question 584: At how many weeks does the amniotic fluid volume usually start to plateau or slightly decrease?

A. 16
B. 12
C. 30
D. 38-40 (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***38-40*** - The **amniotic fluid volume** typically peaks around **36-38 weeks gestation** and then begins to plateau or slightly decrease towards term. - At **38-40 weeks**, as a woman approaches her due date, the volume of amniotic fluid naturally lessens. *16* - At **16 weeks**, the amniotic fluid volume is still actively increasing and is crucial for **fetal development** and movements. - This period is well before the peak volume and certainly not a point of plateau or decrease. *30* - At **30 weeks**, the amniotic fluid volume is still in its increasing phase, contributing to the healthy growth and protection of the fetus. - The decline or plateau does not typically begin until closer to term. *12* - At **12 weeks**, the formation and increase of amniotic fluid is in its early stages as the fetus and membranes develop. - This is a period of rapid growth in fluid volume, not a plateau or decrease.

Question 585: Which of the following is the most common genital infection in pregnancy?

A. Vaginal candidiasis (Correct Answer)
B. Gonorrhea
C. Chlamydia
D. Bacterial vaginosis

Explanation: ***Vaginal candidiasis*** - **Vaginal candidiasis**, commonly known as a yeast infection, is the **most frequent genital infection** during pregnancy due to hormonal changes that alter the vaginal microenvironment. - Pregnancy increases susceptibility through **elevated estrogen levels**, **increased vaginal glycogen**, and **altered vaginal pH**. - While generally not harmful to the fetus, it can cause significant maternal discomfort with symptoms like **itching**, burning, and a **thick, white, cottage cheese-like discharge**. *Gonorrhea* - Gonorrhea is a **sexually transmitted infection (STI)** that, although possible, is not the most common genital infection in pregnancy. - It carries a risk of serious complications for both mother and infant, including **preterm birth**, **chorioamnionitis**, and **neonatal conjunctivitis** (ophthalmia neonatorum). *Chlamydia* - Chlamydia is another **STI** that can occur during pregnancy but is not as common as candidiasis. - Untreated chlamydia can lead to **preterm rupture of membranes**, **preterm labor**, and **postpartum endometritis** in the mother, and **conjunctivitis** or **pneumonia** in the newborn. *Bacterial vaginosis* - Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an **imbalance in normal vaginal flora**, with overgrowth of anaerobic bacteria. - While BV is the most common vaginal infection in **non-pregnant women**, vaginal candidiasis is more frequently encountered during pregnancy due to hormonal changes. - BV in pregnancy is associated with increased risk of **preterm birth**, **preterm rupture of membranes**, and **postpartum endometritis**, making screening and treatment important.

Question 586: What is Hegar's sign in obstetrics?

A. Uterine contractions
B. Fetal movement
C. Cyanosis of the vagina
D. Softening of the uterine isthmus (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Softening of the uterine isthmus*** - **Hegar's sign** is an early presumptive sign of pregnancy characterized by the **softening of the lower uterine segment (isthmus)**, which can be palpated during a bimanual examination. - This softening makes the fundus and cervix feel like separate entities, indicating increased vascularity and changes due to hormonal influence. *Uterine contractions* - While contractions do occur during pregnancy (e.g., **Braxton Hicks contractions**), they are not what defines Hegar's sign. - **Uterine contractions** are typically associated with labor or placental abruption, not the specific softening of the isthmus. *Fetal movement* - **Fetal movement** (quickening) is a positive sign of pregnancy perceived by the mother, usually after 16-20 weeks gestation. - This is entirely distinct from Hegar's sign, which is a physical finding upon examination of the uterus. *Cyanosis of the vagina* - **Cyanosis of the vagina** and cervix is known as **Chadwick's sign**, another presumptive sign of pregnancy. - Chadwick's sign is due to increased vascularity and venous congestion, causing a bluish discoloration, but it's not the softening described in Hegar's sign.

Question 587: Which of the following methods is used for prenatal diagnosis of Down Syndrome?

A. Karyotyping for chromosomal analysis (Correct Answer)
B. Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) for cell-free DNA analysis
C. Triple test for biomarker screening
D. Fetal ultrasonography for physical feature assessment

Explanation: ***Karyotyping for chromosomal analysis*** - **Karyotyping** is the gold standard definitive diagnostic method for Down syndrome (trisomy 21) as it directly visualizes and counts all chromosomes, identifying the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. - This cytogenetic method provides a clear genetic diagnosis with 100% accuracy, confirming the chromosomal abnormality responsible for Down syndrome. - Karyotyping can be performed on cells obtained via amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS). *Triple test for biomarker screening* - The **triple test** measures biochemical markers (alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated estriol, and hCG) to assess the risk of Down syndrome, but it is a **screening tool**, not a diagnostic method. - It has a detection rate of approximately 69% with a 5% false-positive rate. - Abnormal results require confirmatory diagnostic testing with karyotyping or other chromosomal analysis methods. *Fetal ultrasonography for physical feature assessment* - Fetal ultrasonography can detect **soft markers** such as increased nuchal translucency, absent/hypoplastic nasal bone, echogenic intracardiac focus, or structural anomalies that raise suspicion for Down syndrome. - However, ultrasound findings are **not diagnostic** on their own and have limited sensitivity and specificity. - Positive findings necessitate genetic testing like karyotyping for definitive diagnosis. *Non-invasive prenatal testing (NIPT) for cell-free DNA analysis* - **NIPT** analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in maternal blood and has high sensitivity (>99%) and specificity (>99%) for detecting trisomy 21. - Despite its excellent screening performance, NIPT is still classified as a **screening test**, not a diagnostic test. - Positive NIPT results require confirmation with diagnostic testing (karyotyping) before making clinical decisions regarding the pregnancy.

Question 588: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?

A. Cholera vaccine
B. Typhoid vaccine
C. Meningococcal vaccine
D. Measles vaccine (Correct Answer)

Explanation: ***Measles vaccine*** - The measles vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, which carries a theoretical risk of causing infection in the fetus. - Live vaccines are generally **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to this potential risk of congenital infection. *Cholera vaccine* - The cholera vaccine is generally considered **safe during pregnancy** if indicated, especially for travel to endemic areas. - While administration in pregnancy should be based on risk-benefit, it is not consistently contraindicated like live vaccines. *Typhoid vaccine* - Both inactivated and live attenuated typhoid vaccines are available; the **inactivated (killed) vaccine** is generally preferred if vaccination is necessary during pregnancy. - The risks of the disease usually outweigh the vaccine risks, and it is not a universal contraindication. *Meningococcal vaccine* - **Meningococcal vaccines** are generally considered safe and can be administered during pregnancy if there is a significant risk of exposure or during outbreaks. - The benefits of maternal and potential fetal protection from meningococcal disease outweigh theoretical risks.

Question 589: Nuchal translucency is used in

A. Head scan
B. MRI neck
C. ANC USG (Correct Answer)
D. Anthropometry

Explanation: ***ANC USG*** - **Nuchal translucency** measurement is a key component of the **first-trimester antenatal ultrasound** (ANC USG). - It helps in screening for chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** and certain cardiac defects. *Head scan* - A head scan (e.g., CT or MRI of the head) is used to evaluate the **brain** and **skull** for conditions like tumors, strokes, or trauma. - It is not routinely used for fetal screening or nuchal translucency assessment. *MRI neck* - **MRI of the neck** is employed to visualize soft tissues, blood vessels, and bones in the neck region. - Its primary use is in diagnosing conditions like cervical disc herniations, spinal cord compression, or neck masses, not for fetal screening. *Anthropometry* - **Anthropometry** involves the measurement of the human body, such as height, weight, and limb circumference. - While general measurements are taken during pregnancy, anthropometry specifically does not refer to the assessment of nuchal translucency.

Question 590: Which of the following statements about Hegar's sign is false?

A. Bimanual palpation method
B. Present in 2/3rd of cases (Correct Answer)
C. Difficult in obese
D. Can be done at 14 weeks

Explanation: ***Present in 2/3rd of cases*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer to this question. - Hegar's sign, while a classic sign of pregnancy, is not consistently present in 2/3rds of cases with such statistical certainty. - Its detectability varies significantly depending on **gestational age** (optimal 6-12 weeks), **uterine position** (retroverted uterus makes it harder), **examiner experience**, and **patient body habitus**. - This specific "2/3rd" frequency claim lacks strong evidence-based support in obstetric literature. *Bimanual palpation method* - This statement is TRUE. - **Hegar's sign** is elicited by **bimanual pelvic examination** where one hand is placed on the abdomen and the other in the vagina to palpate the softening and compressibility of the **lower uterine segment** (isthmus). - The examiner feels the cervix and uterine fundus separately with the soft isthmus compressed between the examining fingers. *Difficult in obese* - This statement is TRUE. - **Obesity** makes any deep abdominal or pelvic palpation more challenging due to increased adipose tissue. - The **softening of the lower uterine segment** is harder to appreciate, reducing the sensitivity of detecting Hegar's sign in obese patients. *Can be done at 14 weeks* - This statement is technically TRUE but represents suboptimal timing. - **Hegar's sign** is most reliably detectable between the **6th and 12th weeks of gestation**. - At **14 weeks**, while the examination can still be performed, the uterus has grown significantly and risen into the abdomen, making the lower uterine segment less compressible and the sign much less prominent or absent. - The statement doesn't claim it's "optimal" at 14 weeks, only that it "can be done," which is technically accurate even if clinically impractical.

Practice by Chapter

Preconception Counseling

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Pregnancy Diagnosis and Dating

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Routine Antenatal Assessments

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Maternal Physiological Changes

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Nutrition in Pregnancy

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Screening Tests in Pregnancy

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Fetal Growth Assessment

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High-Risk Pregnancy Identification

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Antenatal Complications Management

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Psychosocial Aspects of Pregnancy

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