Question 1

Question

A 32-year-old G3P2 woman at 34 weeks of gestation presents with sudden onset painless bright-red vaginal bleeding. She has no uterine contractions and the uterus is soft on palpation. Fetal heart rate is 148 bpm and reactive. She is hemodynamically stable and the bleeding has decreased. The transvaginal ultrasound is shown (Image 1). Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

A. Administer a single course of intramuscular betamethasone and manage expectantly with hospitalization

Answer

B. Proceed to immediate emergency caesarean section under general anaesthesia

Answer

C. Perform a digital cervical examination to assess Bishop score and consider induction of labour

Answer

D. Administer tocolysis with nifedipine and discharge with outpatient surveillance

Prenatal Care — MCQs

Prenatal Care — MCQs

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