NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :

Ultrasonography. ***Ultrasonography*** - **Antenatal ultrasonography** is the primary and most effective method for detecting fetal hydrocephalus. - It allows direct visualization of **ventricular dilation**, the key diagnostic finding in hydrocephalus (lateral ventricles >10mm at atrium level). - USG is **safe, non-invasive**, and can be performed repeatedly without radiation exposure. - It also helps identify associated anomalies and determine the cause of hydrocephalus. *X-ray abdomen* - **X-rays** expose the fetus to **ionizing radiation**, posing risks and violating ALARA (As Low As Reasonably Achievable) principles. - They provide limited detail of **soft tissue structures** like brain ventricles, making them unsuitable for diagnosing hydrocephalus. - X-rays are not used for antenatal diagnosis of fetal brain abnormalities. *Amniocentesis* - **Amniocentesis** is primarily used for **chromosomal analysis** and genetic testing, not for direct visualization of brain anomalies. - While some genetic conditions can lead to hydrocephalus, amniocentesis doesn't directly detect the hydrocephalus itself. - It cannot visualize structural fetal abnormalities. *Clinical examination* - **Antenatal clinical examination** of the mother cannot directly assess fetal brain abnormalities. - It may suggest fetal issues if there is an abnormally large uterine size or polyhydramnios, but it **lacks the specificity and sensitivity** to diagnose hydrocephalus. - Clinical examination alone is inadequate for detecting structural fetal anomalies.

Q: Which of the following conditions can lead to a prolonged second stage of labor?

All of the options. ***All of the options*** - **Uterine inertia**, **maternal exhaustion**, and **cephalopelvic disproportion** are all well-established causes of a prolonged second stage of labor. - These factors either impede effective uterine contractions, reduce the mother's ability to push, or create a physical barrier to fetal descent, respectively. *Uterine inertia* - Refers to **weak** or **ineffective uterine contractions** that are insufficient to expel the fetus. - This directly prolongs the second stage by failing to provide adequate propulsive force. *Maternal exhaustion* - Occurs when the mother becomes too **tired** to effectively push, often due to a long and difficult labor. - Reduced maternal effort leads to a lack of downward pressure, extending the second stage. *Cephalopelvic disproportion* - Characterized by a mismatch between the **size of the fetal head** and the **maternal pelvis**, preventing the head from descending. - This mechanical obstruction inevitably leads to a prolonged, and often ultimately arrested, second stage of labor.

Q: Which is not a risk factor for gestational hypertension

Smoking. ***Smoking*** - **Smoking** paradoxically shows a *protective effect* against gestational hypertension and preeclampsia, making it the correct answer as it is NOT a risk factor for gestational hypertension. - This well-documented phenomenon may be related to smoking's vasodilatory effects and reduced production of anti-angiogenic factors. - However, smoking carries numerous other serious risks including **intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR)**, **placental abruption**, **preterm birth**, and **perinatal mortality**. *Primigravida* - **Primigravida** (first pregnancy) is a well-established risk factor for gestational hypertension and preeclampsia. - First-time exposure to paternal antigens and incomplete immune tolerance may contribute to this increased risk. - The risk decreases in subsequent pregnancies with the same partner. *Factor V Leiden mutation* - The **Factor V Leiden mutation** is the most common inherited thrombophilia and significantly increases the risk of gestational hypertension and preeclampsia. - This mutation causes resistance to activated protein C, leading to a hypercoagulable state that can impair placental perfusion. - Associated with increased risk of venous thromboembolism during pregnancy. *Low maternal age* - **Low maternal age** (adolescent pregnancy, <20 years) is actually a recognized *risk factor* for gestational hypertension. - Young mothers may have incomplete physical and cardiovascular maturity to handle pregnancy-related physiological changes. - Adolescent pregnancies are associated with higher rates of hypertensive disorders of pregnancy.

Q: Common misdiagnosis of partial mole is

Threatened abortion. ***Threatened abortion*** - Partial moles often present with **vaginal bleeding** and a uterus size appropriate for gestational age, mimicking the symptoms of a **threatened abortion**. - **Fetal heartbeat** may be detectable in a partial mole, further complicating differentiation from a threatened abortion without detailed ultrasound or histological examination. *Choriocarcinoma* - **Choriocarcinoma** is a malignant tumor and a complication of molar pregnancy, not a common misdiagnosis of an early partial mole. - While both involve abnormal trophoblastic tissue, **choriocarcinoma** follows a molar pregnancy (or other gestations) and presents with systemic symptoms and very high hCG levels, distinct from the initial presentation of a partial mole. *Complete mole* - **Complete moles** are distinct from partial moles both genetically (46,XX or 46,XY with paternal origin only) and pathologically (no fetal tissue, generalized hydropic villi). - While both are types of molar pregnancy, they have different management and prognostic implications, and are distinct entities rather than a misdiagnosis of one for the other's initial presentation. *Ectopic pregnancy* - An **ectopic pregnancy** typically presents with pain and vaginal bleeding, along with an empty uterus on ultrasound. - While both involve abnormal pregnancy presentations, a **partial mole** usually shows some fetal tissue or identifiable placental tissue within the uterine cavity, distinguishing it from an ectopic pregnancy.

Q: When the fetus is at station +2 and the fetal skull reaches the pelvic floor, which of the following statements is MOST clinically relevant?

Forceps may be applied if necessary.. ***Forceps may be applied if necessary.*** - At **station +2**, the fetal head has progressed significantly into the pelvis (2 cm below the ischial spines), indicating a **low-lying head** where instrumental delivery with **forceps** or a **vacuum extractor** can be safely performed if indicated (e.g., maternal exhaustion, fetal distress). - This station qualifies as **low forceps** or **outlet forceps** delivery, which are considered safe procedures when properly indicated. - The fetal head at this level has reached or is approaching the **pelvic floor**, meeting the prerequisites for assisted vaginal delivery. *Crowning occurs at this stage.* - **Crowning** specifically refers to the stage when the largest diameter of the fetal head is visible at the **vaginal introitus** and does not recede between contractions. - This occurs at approximately **station +4 to +5**, not at station +2. - While station +2 indicates significant descent, the fetus must descend further before crowning occurs. *There is a risk of deep transverse arrest.* - **Deep transverse arrest** occurs when the fetal head fails to internally rotate from the transverse position to an occipito-anterior or occipito-posterior position. - This complication typically occurs at **station 0 to +1** (mid-pelvis level), not at station +2. - By the time the fetal head reaches station +2 and the pelvic floor, internal rotation should have already occurred. *Episiotomy must be performed at this station.* - **Episiotomy** is **not mandatory** at any particular fetal station. - It is a selective procedure performed when indicated, typically just before crowning (around station +3 to +4), to prevent severe perineal trauma or expedite delivery. - The decision is based on clinical factors like fetal size, maternal tissue quality, and risk of severe laceration—not solely on fetal station.

Q: Most common antigen involved in erythroblastosis fetalis is:

D antigen in Rh group. ***D antigen in Rh group*** - The **D antigen** is the most immunogenic of the Rh antigens and is responsible for the vast majority of cases of **erythroblastosis fetalis** (hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn). - When an **Rh-negative mother** is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood (usually during previous pregnancies or transfusions), she can form antibodies against the D antigen, which can then cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies and attack Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. *C antigen in Rh group* - While the **C antigen** is part of the Rh blood group system, antibodies to it are much less common and typically cause less severe hemolytic disease compared to anti-D antibodies. - The C antigen is less immunogenic than the D antigen, meaning it is less likely to provoke an immune response in an Rh-negative individual. *E antigen in Rh group* - Similar to the C antigen, the **E antigen** is another Rh antigen, but antibodies against it (anti-E) are also less frequently implicated in severe erythroblastosis fetalis than anti-D. - Antibodies to E can cause hemolytic disease, but their clinical significance is usually milder than that of anti-D. *Duffy antigen* - The **Duffy antigen system** is separate from the Rh system and is known for its role in resistance to certain malarial parasites (e.g., *Plasmodium vivax*). - Although antibodies to Duffy antigens (anti-Fya, anti-Fyb) can cause **hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn**, they are a far less common cause of erythroblastosis fetalis than antibodies to the Rh D antigen.

Q: Which of the following methods is not used for managing shoulder dystocia?

Hegar's maneuver. *McRobert's maneuver* - This maneuver is a common first-line intervention for shoulder dystocia, involving sharp **flexion of the mother's hips** back towards her abdomen to flatten the sacrum and rotate the symphysis pubis anteriorly. - It works by increasing the functional diameter of the **pelvic outlet**, potentially dislodging the anterior shoulder. ***Hegar's maneuver*** - **Hegar's sign** is a clinical finding related to early pregnancy, indicating the **softening of the lower uterine segment** (isthmus) upon bimanual examination. - It is a diagnostic sign of pregnancy and **not a method used to resolve shoulder dystocia**. *Zavanelli maneuver* - The **Zavanelli maneuver** is a last-resort intervention for shoulder dystocia, involving the **replacement of the fetal head into the uterus** followed by immediate delivery via **cesarean section**. - This is a highly invasive procedure with significant risks to both mother and fetus, used when other maneuvers have failed. *Wood's maneuver* - **Wood's maneuver** involves **rotating the fetal shoulders** by applying pressure to the posterior aspect of the anterior shoulder or the anterior aspect of the posterior shoulder to achieve a corkscrew effect. - This rotation can help dislodge an impacted shoulder or facilitate its passage under the symphysis pubis.

Q: Which is false about stress urinary incontinence?

More common in men. ***More common in men*** - **Stress urinary incontinence (SUI)** is significantly more prevalent in **women** due to anatomical differences and factors like childbirth. - While it can occur in men, especially after prostate surgery, the overall incidence is higher in females. *It is due to weakening of pelvic floor muscles* - Weakening of the **pelvic floor muscles** is a primary cause of SUI, leading to insufficient support for the urethra and bladder neck. - This weakness compromises the ability to maintain urethral closure pressure during activity. *Prostate surgery may be a cause* - **Radical prostatectomy** for prostate cancer is a common cause of SUI in men, as it can damage the urethral sphincter. - Damage to the internal or external urethral sphincter during surgery impairs the ability to control urine flow. *It occurs during increased abdominal pressure* - SUI characteristically involves involuntary urine leakage during activities that increase **intra-abdominal pressure**, such as coughing, sneezing, laughing, or exercising. - This increased pressure overcomes the weakened urethral resistance, leading to urine loss.

Question 1

Hydrocephalus is best detected antenatally by :

Accepted Answer

Ultrasonography

Answer

X-ray abdomen

Answer

Amniocentesis

Answer

Clinical examination

Question 2

Which of the following conditions can lead to a prolonged second stage of labor?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Cephalopelvic disproportion

Answer

Uterine inertia

Answer

Maternal exhaustion

Question 3

Which is not a risk factor for gestational hypertension

Accepted Answer

Smoking

Answer

Primigravida

Answer

Factor V Leiden mutation

Answer

Low maternal age

Question 4

Common misdiagnosis of partial mole is

Accepted Answer

Threatened abortion

Answer

Choriocarcinoma

Answer

Complete mole

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Question 5

When the fetus is at station +2 and the fetal skull reaches the pelvic floor, which of the following statements is MOST clinically relevant?

Accepted Answer

Forceps may be applied if necessary.

Answer

Crowning occurs at this stage.

Answer

There is a risk of deep transverse arrest.

Answer

Episiotomy must be performed at this station.

Question 6

Most common antigen involved in erythroblastosis fetalis is:

Accepted Answer

D antigen in Rh group

Answer

C antigen in Rh group

Answer

E antigen in Rh group

Answer

Duffy antigen

Question 7

Which of the following methods is not used for managing shoulder dystocia?

Accepted Answer

Hegar's maneuver

Answer

Zavanelli maneuver

Answer

Wood's maneuver

Answer

McRobert's maneuver

Question 8

What is the primary clinical advantage of the occipitoanterior position in childbirth?

Accepted Answer

It allows optimal fetal head flexion reducing the presenting diameter.

Answer

It is the most favorable position for vaginal delivery.

Answer

Anterior fontanelle is anterior in this position.

Answer

It is associated with shorter labor duration and fewer complications.

Question 9

Which is false about stress urinary incontinence?

Accepted Answer

More common in men

Answer

It is due to weakening of pelvic floor muscles

Answer

Prostate surgery may be a cause

Answer

It occurs during increased abdominal pressure

Question 10

In which part of the fallopian tube is ectopic pregnancy most likely to survive longer?

Accepted Answer

Interstitial

Answer

Isthmus

Answer

Ampulla

Answer

Cornua

NEET-PG 2015 — Obstetrics and Gynecology