NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology Practice Questions

Q: Which serum level is increased in premature ovarian failure?

Serum FSH. ***Serum FSH*** - In **premature ovarian failure**, the ovaries fail to produce sufficient estrogen and inhibin, leading to a loss of negative feedback on the pituitary gland. - This lack of negative feedback results in continuously **elevated levels of FSH** as the pituitary tries to stimulate the non-responsive ovaries. *Serum Inhibin* - **Inhibin** is a hormone produced by ovarian granulosa cells, which normally inhibits FSH secretion. - In premature ovarian failure, due to ovarian dysfunction, **inhibin levels are typically decreased**, not increased. *Serum Estradiol* - **Estradiol** is the primary estrogen produced by the ovaries. - In premature ovarian failure, the ovaries are failing, resulting in **decreased production of estrogen/estradiol**. *Serum Progesterone* - **Progesterone** is primarily produced after ovulation by the corpus luteum. - In premature ovarian failure, ovulation is impaired or absent, leading to **low or undetectable progesterone levels**.

Q: Which of the following is not considered a marker of ovarian reserve?

Inhibin A. ***Inhibin A*** - **Inhibin A** levels primarily rise during the mid to late luteal phase and are involved in regulating FSH, but they are not a reliable or commonly used marker for **ovarian reserve**. - Its fluctuations are more indicative of the presence of a **corpus luteum** and short-term ovarian function rather than the total follicular pool. *Inhibin B* - **Inhibin B** is produced by granulosa cells of small antral follicles and is an important marker of **ovarian reserve**. - It inversely correlates with **FSH** levels in the early follicular phase, reflecting the number of developing follicles. *Ovarian volume* - **Ovarian volume**, particularly when measured by ultrasound, can be an indicator of **ovarian reserve**. - Smaller ovarian volume is generally associated with a reduced number of **antral follicles** and lower ovarian reserve. *Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)* - **AMH** is a well-established and highly reliable marker of **ovarian reserve**, produced by the granulosa cells of preantral and small antral follicles. - Its levels correlate directly with the total number of remaining **primordial follicles** and are relatively stable throughout the menstrual cycle.

Q: Which of the following is a side effect of Progestin Only Pills (POPs)?

Ovarian cysts. ***Ovarian cysts*** - **Functional ovarian cysts** are a known side effect of Progestin Only Pills (**POPs**), as POPs can alter the normal ovulatory cycle but usually do not completely suppress follicular development. - While generally benign and self-resolving, they can cause pain and discomfort. *Venous thromboembolism* - **POPs** are not significantly associated with an increased risk of **venous thromboembolism** due to the absence of estrogen, unlike combined hormonal contraceptives. - This is a key advantage of POPs, making them suitable for individuals at risk for thromboembolic events. *Increased risk of diabetes mellitus* - There is generally **no significant increased risk** of **diabetes mellitus** associated with POPs. - While some hormonal contraceptives *may* have minor effects on glucose metabolism, this is not a prominent or clinically significant side effect of POPs. *Ectopic pregnancy* - POPs **do not increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy**. In fact, they **reduce the overall pregnancy rate**, including ectopic pregnancies, by preventing ovulation. - However, if a pregnancy does occur while on POPs, there is a *slightly higher proportion* of those pregnancies that may be ectopic compared to unaided conceptions, but the *absolute risk* remains low.

Q: Which of the following is not associated with maternal age?

Post maturity. ***Post maturity*** - **Post-maturity** (post-term pregnancy, >42 weeks) does NOT have a consistent or strong association with maternal age in current obstetric literature. - While some older studies suggested associations, modern evidence shows **no significant independent effect of maternal age** on post-term pregnancy rates. - Post-term pregnancy is more related to factors like **first pregnancy**, **prior post-term delivery**, and **fetal sex** (males more common). *Preterm labour* - **Preterm birth is strongly associated with maternal age**, particularly at both extremes: - **Teenage mothers** (<20 years): Increased risk due to biological immaturity and socioeconomic factors - **Advanced maternal age** (≥35 years): Increased risk due to higher rates of maternal complications (hypertension, diabetes) and placental dysfunction - This is well-established in obstetric literature and clinical guidelines. *Aneuploidy* - The risk of **aneuploidy**, particularly **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)**, **increases dramatically with advancing maternal age**. - At age 35: ~1/350 risk; at age 40: ~1/100 risk; at age 45: ~1/30 risk - Due to age-related decline in oocyte quality causing meiotic errors during egg formation. *Hydatidiform mole* - **Gestational trophoblastic disease** (hydatidiform mole) is strongly associated with **extremes of maternal age**: - **Women >40 years**: 5-10 fold increased risk - **Teenagers**: 1.5-2 fold increased risk - Related to abnormal fertilization events more common at age extremes.

Q: What should be done if 2 OCPs are missed on days 17-18 of the cycle?

Both a and b. ***Both a and b*** - When **two OCPs are missed** on days 17-18 (Week 3) of the cycle, the recommended approach combines two actions to restore contraceptive protection. - The woman should **take two pills on the next two days** to compensate for the missed doses and restore hormonal levels quickly. - Additionally, **backup contraception should be used for at least 7 days** to ensure contraceptive effectiveness, as the missed pills during Week 3 could compromise protection and increase the risk of ovulation. - Both actions together address the hormonal gap and provide adequate contraceptive coverage. *Take 2 pills on the next 2 days* - While this action helps **reestablish hormone levels** after missing two pills, it is **insufficient on its own**. - Without concurrent backup contraception, there remains a risk of **ovulation** and **unintended pregnancy** during the recovery period. - This must be combined with backup contraceptive methods for 7 days. *Use back up contraceptive* - Using **backup contraception** is essential because missing two pills in Week 3 increases the risk of **ovulation**. - However, backup contraception alone without resuming the pill regimen (with catch-up dosing) would not adequately restore the hormonal cycle. - Both resuming pills appropriately and using backup methods are necessary. *Continue taking single pill per day* - Simply continuing with one pill per day without any catch-up dosing would leave a **hormonal gap** from the two missed pills. - This approach does not compensate for the **missed active hormones**, leaving inadequate hormone levels for contraceptive protection. - Without catch-up dosing and backup contraception, the risk of **ovulation** and **pregnancy** remains significantly elevated.

Q: Most common complication of dermoid cyst is -

Torsion. ***Torsion*** - Ovarian dermoid cysts (mature cystic teratomas) are prone to **torsion** due to their common unilateral, round, and easily mobile nature. - Torsion results from the **twisting of the ovarian pedicle**, which can lead to exquisite pain and potential **ischemic necrosis** of the ovary. - **Most common complication** occurring in **15-20% of dermoid cysts**. *Cyst Rupture* - While rupture can occur, it is a **less common complication** than torsion, occurring in **1-4% of cases**. - Rupture can release sebaceous material and hair into the peritoneal cavity, leading to **chemical peritonitis**. *Malignant degeneration* - **Malignant transformation** within a dermoid cyst is rare, occurring in **less than 1-2% of cases**, making it much less common than torsion. - The most common type of malignancy arising from a dermoid cyst is **squamous cell carcinoma**. *Infection* - **Secondary infection** of dermoid cysts is a rare complication. - Much less common than torsion, and typically presents with fever, pain, and signs of inflammation.

Q: What is a common cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea?

One horn of malformed uterus. ***One horn of malformed uterus*** - **Obstructed rudimentary horn** with functional endometrium or **obstructed hemivagina** in uterine anomalies is a **classic cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea**. - The obstruction leads to accumulation of menstrual blood in the non-communicating horn or hemivagina, causing **severe cyclical unilateral pelvic pain** that worsens progressively with each menstrual cycle. - This typically presents in **adolescents or young women** after menarche and is a well-recognized gynecological emergency requiring surgical intervention. - Examples include: **unicornuate uterus with non-communicating rudimentary horn**, **uterus didelphys with obstructed hemivagina** (OHVIRA syndrome). *Endometriosis causing unilateral pain* - While endometriosis causes **dysmenorrhea**, it typically presents with **bilateral pelvic pain** and diffuse tenderness. - Endometriosis pain is usually **generalized** rather than strictly unilateral, though asymmetric involvement can occur. - The pain is associated with **deep dyspareunia**, **dyschezia**, and chronic pelvic pain rather than strictly unilateral cyclical pain. *Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction* - Fibroids (leiomyomas) can cause **dysmenorrhea and menorrhagia**, but unilateral presentation is uncommon. - Cornual fibroids may cause localized pain, but this is not a typical or common presentation of **unilateral dysmenorrhea**. - Pain from fibroids is usually related to **degeneration** or pressure effects rather than cyclical unilateral menstrual pain. *All of the options* - While multiple conditions can cause pelvic pain, **obstructed müllerian anomalies** (one horn of malformed uterus) are the **most classic and important cause** of true unilateral dysmenorrhea. - This is the diagnosis that must be ruled out when a patient presents with unilateral cyclical pelvic pain.

Q: Most common cause of secondary PPH is :

Retained placenta. ***Retained placenta*** - Retained placental tissue prevents the uterus from contracting effectively, leading to continued bleeding after delivery. - While it's a common cause of primary PPH as well, it often presents as a secondary PPH when small fragments remain and later detach or become infected. *Uterine atony* - This is the **most common cause of primary PPH**, occurring within 24 hours of delivery due to the uterus failing to contract. - It is less likely to be the primary cause of secondary PPH unless there's a delayed presentation. *Vaginal laceration* - Lacerations of the vagina usually present as **primary PPH**, with bright red blood despite a well-contracted uterus. - While bleeding can persist, it's not the most common cause of delayed, secondary PPH. *Cervical tear* - Cervical tears also typically cause **primary PPH**, characterized by continuous bleeding immediately after delivery. - Similar to vaginal lacerations, while continuous bleeding can occur, it's not the most common etiology for secondary PPH.

Question 1

All are true about uteroplacental circulation except:

Accepted Answer

A mature placenta has 150 ml of blood in the villi system and 350 ml of blood in the intervillous space

Answer

The villi depend on the maternal blood for their nutrition

Answer

Blood in the intervillous space is completely replaced 3-4 times per minute

Answer

Intervillous blood flow at term is 500-600 ml per minute

Question 2

Which serum level is increased in premature ovarian failure?

Accepted Answer

Serum FSH

Answer

Serum Inhibin

Answer

Serum Estradiol

Answer

Serum Progesterone

Question 3

Which of the following is not considered a marker of ovarian reserve?

Accepted Answer

Inhibin A

Answer

Ovarian volume

Answer

Inhibin B

Answer

Anti-Müllerian Hormone (AMH)

Question 4

Which of the following is a side effect of Progestin Only Pills (POPs)?

Accepted Answer

Ovarian cysts

Answer

Venous thromboembolism

Answer

Increased risk of diabetes mellitus

Answer

Ectopic pregnancy

Question 5

Which of the following is not associated with maternal age?

Accepted Answer

Post maturity

Answer

Preterm labour

Answer

Aneuploidy

Answer

Hydatidiform mole

Question 6

What should be done if 2 OCPs are missed on days 17-18 of the cycle?

Accepted Answer

Both a and b

Answer

Take 2 pills on the next 2 days

Answer

Continue taking single pill per day

Answer

Use back up contraceptive

Question 7

Most common complication of dermoid cyst is -

Accepted Answer

Torsion

Answer

Cyst Rupture

Answer

Malignant degeneration

Answer

Infection

Question 8

What is a common cause of unilateral dysmenorrhea?

Accepted Answer

One horn of malformed uterus

Answer

Small fibroid at the utero tubal junction

Answer

Endometriosis causing unilateral pain

Answer

All of the options

Question 9

What is the most appropriate management for a 28-year-old hemodynamically stable patient with mild abdominal pain and an unruptured tubal ectopic pregnancy measuring 2.5 x 3 cm, with β-hCG level of 8500 mIU/mL, visible fetal cardiac activity, and who desires future fertility?

Accepted Answer

Laparoscopic salpingostomy

Answer

Methotrexate therapy

Answer

Laparoscopic salpingectomy

Answer

Expectant management

Question 10

Most common cause of secondary PPH is :

Accepted Answer

Retained placenta

Answer

Cervical tear

Answer

Uterine atony

Answer

Vaginal laceration

NEET-PG 2015 — Obstetrics and Gynecology