NEET-PG 2013 — Surgery
64 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Test to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction is:
Which condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?
Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?
What does the acronym NSABP represent in the context of cancer research?
Which color indicates the highest priority in triage?
In the context of triage, what color would be assigned to a moribund patient?
Most common organ involved in air blast injury is?
What is the term used for choking of the respiratory passage by a bolus of food?
In blast injury, which organ is most likely to be damaged first?
Best approach for emergency thoracotomy in acute thoracic trauma is
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Test to differentiate between psychological and organic erectile dysfunction is:
- A. Pharmacologically induced penile erection therapy
- B. Sildenafil induced erection
- C. Squeeze technique
- D. Nocturnal penile tumescence (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nocturnal penile tumescence*** - **Nocturnal penile tumescence (NPT)** testing measures the occurrence and quality of **erections during sleep**. - Healthy men experience erections during REM sleep; their presence suggests a **psychological cause** for erectile dysfunction as the neural pathways for erection are intact. *Pharmacologically induced penile erection therapy* - This involves injecting **vasodilating agents** directly into the penis to induce an erection. - While it can confirm the capacity for erection, it does not differentiate between psychological and organic causes since both types of ED can respond to direct pharmacological intervention. *Sildenafil induced erection* - Sildenafil (Viagra) is a **PDE5 inhibitor** that works by enhancing the effects of nitric oxide during sexual stimulation. - An erection induced by sildenafil can occur in both psychological and organic ED as long as there is some capacity for vasodilation, thus it does not differentiate the underlying cause. *Squeeze technique* - The **squeeze technique** is a behavioral therapy used to treat **premature ejaculation**, not erectile dysfunction. - It involves stopping stimulation at the point of impending ejaculation and applying pressure to the penis to reduce arousal.
Question 2: Which condition typically presents with irregular, hard palpable masses in the breast?
- A. Non comedo DCIS
- B. Fibroadenoma
- C. Invasive ductal carcinoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Comedocarcinoma
Explanation: ***Paget's disease*** - Paget's disease of the breast leads to **palpable abnormalities** such as skin changes and underlying mass formation [1]. - Often presents with **nipple discharge** and alterations in the areola, indicating an underlying malignancy [2]. *Non comedo DCIS* - Non comedo ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) typically presents with **microscopic changes** and lacks palpable masses. - Frequently asymptomatic and may not cause any **significant clinical findings** or changes in the breast. *None* - This option suggests the absence of a related condition, which does not address the query about a type of DCIS causing a **palpable abnormality**. - In the context of DCIS, there are sure conditions (like Paget's) that **do cause palpable changes**. *Comedocarcinoma* - This type of DCIS is characterized by **necrosis and calcifications**, rather than a palpable mass. - While potentially aggressive, it usually does not present with noticeable **palpable abnormalities** like Paget's disease. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Breast, pp. 1061-1062. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Liver And Biliary System Disease, pp. 456-457.
Question 3: Which levels of cervical lymph nodes are included in a modified radical neck dissection?
- A. I-IV
- B. I-V (Correct Answer)
- C. I-III
- D. II-VI
Explanation: ***I-V*** - A modified radical neck dissection typically removes lymph nodes from levels **I through V**, along with preservation of one or more non-lymphatic structures (sternocleidomastoid muscle, internal jugular vein, or spinal accessory nerve). - This extensive dissection addresses potential metastasis to these node groups from head and neck cancers, crucial for adequate oncologic clearance while aiming for functional preservation. *I-III* - This limited dissection would likely be insufficient for many head and neck cancers, as spread often extends beyond level III. - It would miss potential metastases in the lower jugular and posterior triangle nodes, increasing the risk of recurrence. *I-IV* - This dissection omits **level V**, which includes the posterior triangle nodes, a common site for metastatic spread, especially for cancers of the oropharynx, hypopharynx, and thyroid. - Excluding level V would be considered an incomplete radical or modified radical neck dissection in many clinical scenarios. *II-VI* - This option incorrectly excludes lymph nodes at **level I** (submental and submandibular nodes), which are critical draining sites for many oral cavity cancers. - Including level VI (anterior compartment nodes) is typically part of a central compartment neck dissection, often performed for thyroid cancer, but is usually not part of a standard modified radical neck dissection for other head and neck primaries unless specifically indicated.
Question 4: What does the acronym NSABP represent in the context of cancer research?
- A. National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast
- B. National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain
- C. National surgical adjuvant for breast project
- D. National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***National surgical adjuvant for breast and bowel project*** - **NSABP** stands for **National Surgical Adjuvant Breast and Bowel Project**. - It is a prominent research organization focused on conducting clinical trials for the prevention and treatment of breast and colorectal cancer. *National surgical adjuvant for breast project* - This option is incomplete as it omits the "bowel" component of the organization's focus. - The NSABP's research scope extends beyond just breast cancer to include **colorectal cancer**. *National surgical adjuvant for brain and breast* - This option incorrectly includes "brain" and omits "bowel" from the acronym. - The NSABP's primary research areas are **breast and bowel (colorectal) cancers**, not brain cancer. *National surgical adjuvant for bowel and brain* - This option incorrectly includes "brain" and omits "breast" from the acronym. - The NSABP is known for its extensive work in both **breast and colorectal cancer research**.
Question 5: Which color indicates the highest priority in triage?
- A. Red (Correct Answer)
- B. Yellow
- C. Green
- D. Black
Explanation: ***Correct: Red*** - The color **red** is universally used in triage systems to designate the **highest priority** patients, indicating immediate threats to life or limb. - Patients triaged as red require **immediate intervention** and transport to maximize their chances of survival. *Incorrect: Yellow* - **Yellow** indicates a **delayed priority**, meaning patients have serious injuries but their conditions are not immediately life-threatening. - These patients can typically wait for a few hours before receiving definitive medical care. *Incorrect: Green* - **Green** is assigned to patients with **minor injuries** or illnesses that are unlikely to deteriorate over time. - They are considered walking wounded and can often wait for an extended period or be treated with minimal resources. *Incorrect: Black* - **Black** signifies **deceased** or expectant patients, indicating those whose injuries are so severe that survival is unlikely given the available resources. - Resources are typically withheld from these patients to prioritize those with a higher chance of survival.
Question 6: In the context of triage, what color would be assigned to a moribund patient?
- A. Red
- B. Black (Correct Answer)
- C. Yellow
- D. Green
Explanation: ***Black*** - A **black tag** is assigned to patients who are **deceased** or have injuries so severe that survival is unlikely, and resources would be better used on patients with a higher chance of survival. - A **moribund patient** is in a dying state or near death, fitting the criteria for a black tag in triage. *Red* - **Red tags** are for patients with **immediate life-threatening injuries** who have a high probability of survival with prompt intervention. - These patients require immediate medical attention to stabilize fundamental physiological functions. *Yellow* - **Yellow tags** are assigned to patients with **serious injuries** that are not immediately life-threatening. - They require medical attention within a few hours, but their condition is stable enough to wait after red-tagged patients. *Green* - **Green tags** are for patients with **minor injuries** that are non-life-threatening and can wait for medical attention. - These individuals are often referred to as "walking wounded" and can typically care for themselves or assist others.
Question 7: Most common organ involved in air blast injury is?
- A. Ear drum (Correct Answer)
- B. Stomach
- C. Eye
- D. Lung
Explanation: ***Ear drum*** - The **tympanic membrane (eardrum)** is highly sensitive to changes in pressure, making it the most vulnerable and frequently injured organ during **air blast events**. - Its delicate structure can easily rupture due to the sudden, immense pressure wave. *Stomach* - While blast injuries can affect the gastrointestinal tract, causing conditions like **bowel perforation**, the stomach is less commonly and directly impacted than the eardrum. - Gastrointestinal injury usually results from a combination of **blast waves** and secondary effects like **fragmentation**. *Eye* - Eye injuries from blasts often involve **foreign bodies**, **ocular trauma**, or **thermal burns**, but direct **barotrauma** to the eye itself is less common than eardrum rupture. - The eye is somewhat protected by the bony orbit, offering a degree of shielding from direct blast effects. *Lung* - **Blast lung injury** is a serious, life-threatening condition involving pulmonary contusions, hemorrhage, and rupture of alveoli. - While significant, it is generally considered less frequent than eardrum perforation in overall blast injury cases.
Question 8: What is the term used for choking of the respiratory passage by a bolus of food?
- A. Gagging
- B. Choking due to obstruction
- C. Cafe Coronary (Correct Answer)
- D. Suffocation due to food
Explanation: ***Cafe Coronary*** - This term describes sudden death caused by **obstruction of the airway by food**, often mistaken for a heart attack due to the sudden collapse. - It specifically refers to choking on food that leads to **asphyxiation**, frequently occurring in public eating places. *Gagging* - **Gagging** is a protective reflex that prevents objects from entering the throat or causing choking, but it doesn't describe the choking event itself. - It usually involves involuntary contractions of the pharynx and soft palate, often leading to **retching**. *Choking due to obstruction* - This is a general term for **airway obstruction** by anything, while "cafe coronary" specifically refers to food. - While accurate, it lacks the specific medical terminology used to describe food-induced fatal choking. *Suffocation due to food* - **Suffocation** is a broader term for oxygen deprivation, which can be caused by various means, not exclusively food. - While food can lead to suffocation, the term **"cafe coronary"** is more precise for the scenario of sudden death from food lodged in the respiratory passage.
Question 9: In blast injury, which organ is most likely to be damaged first?
- A. Tympanic membrane (Correct Answer)
- B. Liver
- C. Lung
- D. Gastrointestinal tract
Explanation: ***Tympanic membrane*** - The **tympanic membrane** is the most sensitive organ to the pressure waves generated by a blast, often rupturing even with relatively low blast overpressures. - Its thin, delicate structure and direct exposure to external air pressure make it highly vulnerable to barotrauma. *Gastrointestinal tract* - While the **gastrointestinal tract** can be damaged by blast waves, especially air-filled organs, this typically occurs after the tympanic membrane is affected. - Damage often includes hemorrhage, perforation, and mesenteric injury. *Liver* - The **liver** is a solid organ and is less susceptible to initial blast injury compared to air-filled structures. - Damage to the liver usually results from secondary mechanisms like blunt trauma from displacement or impact against other structures. *Lung* - **Blast lung** is a serious injury characterized by pulmonary contusions, hemorrhage, and edema, but it generally requires higher blast overpressure than tympanic membrane rupture. - The air-filled nature of the lungs makes them susceptible, but the tympanic membrane almost always fails first.
Question 10: Best approach for emergency thoracotomy in acute thoracic trauma is
- A. Midline sternotomy
- B. Parasternal thoracotomy
- C. Anterolateral thoracotomy (Correct Answer)
- D. Posterolateral thoracotomy
Explanation: ***Anterolateral thoracotomy*** - Provides **rapid access** to the chest cavity for emergent situations, such as **cardiac tamponade** or **massive hemorrhage**, which are common in thoracic trauma. - Allows assessment and management of injuries to the **heart, great vessels, and lungs** with minimal repositioning in a critically ill patient. *Midline sternotomy* - Primarily used for **cardiac surgery**, offering excellent exposure to the mediastinum but is less ideal for general thoracic trauma with potential lateral injuries. - Takes **longer to perform** than an anterolateral approach and may not be suitable in an emergent, unstable trauma setting. *Parasternal thoracotomy* - Offers more limited access compared to other approaches, typically used for specific, localized procedures near the sternum. - Does not provide the **broad exposure** needed to manage the diverse and potentially widespread injuries seen in severe thoracic trauma. *Posterolateral thoracotomy* - Provides excellent exposure to the **posterior mediastinum, spine, and descending aorta**, but requires the patient to be in the lateral decubitus position. - Repositioning a severely injured trauma patient for this approach is often **impractical and time-consuming**, making it unsuitable for initial resuscitation.