NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology PYQs Practice Questions

Q: In the context of pharmacology, which plasma protein do acidic drugs primarily bind to?

Albumin. ***Albumin*** - **Albumin** is the most abundant plasma protein and has multiple binding sites for a wide range of drugs, particularly **acidic drugs**. - Its high concentration and diverse binding capabilities make it the primary transporter for many **lipophilic** and **anionic drugs**. *Globulin* - **Globulins** are a diverse group of proteins, some of which bind to drugs, but they primarily transport **hormones**, **metals**, and **vitamins**, not acidic drugs. - They are less significant for binding acidic drugs compared to albumin. *α1-acid glycoprotein* - **α1-acid glycoprotein** primarily binds to **basic drugs** due to its numerous acidic residues. - While it plays a crucial role in binding basic compounds, it has limited affinity for acidic drugs. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **albumin** is a well-established and significant plasma protein for binding acidic drugs. - Specific plasma proteins are known to bind different types of drugs, and for acidic drugs, albumin is the primary binder. [Practice more Pharmacology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: When two different chemicals act on two different receptors and their responses are opposite to each other on the same cell, this phenomenon is called?

Physiological antagonism. ***Physiological antagonism*** - This occurs when two drugs act on **different receptors** to produce **opposite physiological effects** within the same system or cell, effectively canceling each other out [1]. - A classic example is the opposing actions of **histamine** (causing bronchoconstriction) and **adrenaline** (causing bronchodilation) on the bronchi [1]. *Chemical antagonism* - This involves a direct **chemical interaction** between two drugs that results in the **inactivation of one or both** of them. - An example is the binding of **chelating agents** to heavy metals, forming an inert complex. *Reversible antagonism* - This describes antagonism where the antagonist binds to the receptor and can be **displaced by a higher concentration of the agonist**. - It does not specifically describe antagonists acting on different receptors or producing opposing physiological effects. *Competitive antagonism* - This occurs when an antagonist directly **competes with an agonist for the same binding site** on a receptor [1]. - The antagonist, while not producing a response itself, prevents the agonist from binding and activating the receptor. [Practice more Pharmacology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: What is the mechanism of metabolism for alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin at high doses?

Zero order kinetics. ***Zero order kinetics*** - This mechanism occurs when the **metabolic enzymes become saturated at high drug concentrations**, leading to a constant amount (not a constant percentage) of drug being eliminated per unit time. - Alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin are examples of drugs that exhibit **saturable metabolism**, transitioning from first-order to zero-order kinetics at higher doses. *First pass kinetics* - This describes the **metabolism of a drug by the liver or gut wall enzymes before it reaches systemic circulation** after oral administration. - While relevant to the oral bioavailability of these drugs, it does not describe the specific mechanism of elimination at high doses. *First order kinetics* - In this mechanism, a **constant fraction or percentage of the drug is eliminated per unit of time**, meaning the rate of elimination is directly proportional to the drug concentration. - Most drugs follow first-order kinetics at therapeutic doses because metabolizing enzymes are not saturated. *Second order kinetics* - This is a **less common pharmacokinetic model** where the rate of elimination is proportional to the square of the drug concentration or involves two reactants. - It does not typically describe the common elimination patterns of most drugs, including alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin. [Practice more Pharmacology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which drug has the highest plasma protein binding?

Warfarin. ***Warfarin*** - **Warfarin** exhibits very **high plasma protein binding**, typically greater than 99%, primarily to albumin. - This high binding capacity means that only a small fraction of the drug is free and pharmacologically active. - Due to high protein binding, warfarin is susceptible to drug interactions when displaced from albumin. *Verapamil* - **Verapamil** has a relatively high plasma protein binding, around 90%, but it is not as high as warfarin. - Its binding is predominantly to **albumin** and alpha-1-acid glycoprotein. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin** (acetylsalicylic acid) has moderate plasma protein binding, usually between 50-90%, depending on the dosage. - It binds to **albumin** and can displace other protein-bound drugs. *GTN* - **Glyceryl trinitrate (GTN)** has moderate plasma protein binding, approximately 60%. - Its rapid onset and short duration of action are primarily due to its extensive first-pass metabolism and quick redistribution, rather than protein binding characteristics. [Practice more Pharmacology PYQs on OnCourse]

Q: Which of the following drugs is known to have low first pass metabolism?

Theophylline. ***Theophylline*** - **Theophylline** exhibits **low first-pass metabolism**, meaning a significant portion of the orally administered drug reaches systemic circulation unchanged. - This characteristic contributes to its relatively **high bioavailability** when given orally. *Lidocaine* - **Lidocaine** undergoes extensive **first-pass metabolism** in the liver, leading to very low oral bioavailability. - Due to this, it is typically administered **parenterally** (e.g., intravenously or topically) to achieve therapeutic concentrations. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is known for its significant **first-pass metabolism**, which results in a much lower bioavailability after oral administration compared to intravenous. - This extensive metabolism necessitates higher oral doses to achieve the same therapeutic effect as parenteral administration. *Morphine* - **Morphine** also undergoes substantial **first-pass metabolism** in the liver, where it is primarily glucuronidated. - This leads to a lower oral bioavailability compared to other routes of administration and contributes to a higher oral dose requirement. [Practice more Pharmacology PYQs on OnCourse]

Question 1

In the context of pharmacology, which plasma protein do acidic drugs primarily bind to?

Accepted Answer

Albumin

Answer

Globulin

Answer

α1-acid glycoprotein

Answer

None of the options

Question 2

When two different chemicals act on two different receptors and their responses are opposite to each other on the same cell, this phenomenon is called?

Accepted Answer

Physiological antagonism

Answer

Chemical antagonism

Answer

Reversible antagonism

Answer

Competitive antagonism

Question 3

What is the mechanism of metabolism for alcohol, aspirin, and phenytoin at high doses?

Accepted Answer

Zero order kinetics

Answer

First pass kinetics

Answer

First order kinetics

Answer

Second order kinetics

Question 4

Which drug has the highest plasma protein binding?

Accepted Answer

Warfarin

Answer

Verapamil

Answer

Aspirin

Answer

GTN

Question 5

Which of the following drugs is known to have low first pass metabolism?

Accepted Answer

Theophylline

Answer

Lidocaine

Answer

Propranolol

Answer

Morphine

Question 6

Which of the following factors influences the duration of action of a drug?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Bioavailability

Answer

Clearance

Answer

Rate of elimination

Question 7

Which of the following drugs is used for Smoking Cessation?

Accepted Answer

Bupropion

Answer

Methadone

Answer

Buprenorphine

Answer

Naltrexone

Question 8

Which route of administration undergoes the maximum first pass metabolism?

Accepted Answer

Oral

Answer

Intra-arterial

Answer

Rectal

Answer

Intravenous

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding omalizumab?

Accepted Answer

All of the options

Answer

Anti-IgE

Answer

Given subcutaneously

Answer

Used as add-on therapy in moderate to severe asthma prophylaxis

Question 10

Which of the following is classified as a Type E adverse reaction?

Accepted Answer

Rebound effect due to drug withdrawal

Answer

Toxicity

Answer

Augmented effect

Answer

Teratogenesis

NEET-PG 2013 — Pharmacology