Which of the following is NOT considered one of Bleuler's fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia?
Which of the following is not considered a core diagnostic criterion for schizophrenia according to DSM-5?
Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
In which socioeconomic strata is schizophrenia most commonly observed?
What is the most likely neurochemical change associated with schizophrenia?
In stupor catatonia, all are seen except -
Which of the following statements is NOT true about type 1 schizophrenia?
Ganser syndrome is classified under which of the following disorders?
Which neurotransmitter is believed to be increased in mania?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 51: Which of the following is NOT considered one of Bleuler's fundamental symptoms of schizophrenia?
- A. Loosening of associations
- B. Affect disturbances
- C. Autism
- D. Delusions (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Delusions*** - **Delusions** are considered a **first-rank symptom** of schizophrenia according to Schneider, but not one of Bleuler's fundamental "4 A's". - Bleuler classified delusions as **accessory symptoms**, which are variable and not always present, unlike fundamental symptoms. *Loosening of associations* - This is one of Bleuler's **"4 A's"**, representing a disturbance in the logical flow of thought, leading to incoherent speech and fractured thinking. - Bleuler saw this as a core cognitive dysfunction in schizophrenia. *Affect disturbances* - This refers to **inappropriate affect** (e.g., laughing at a funeral) or **blunted/flattened affect**, which is another of Bleuler's "4 A's." - It signifies a disruption in the normal experience and expression of emotions. *Autism* - Bleuler's term **"autism"** (or autismus) refers to a pathological self-preoccupation, withdrawal from social interaction, and an immersion in one's own internal world. - This is also one of Bleuler's **"4 A's"**, highlighting a foundational disturbance in social engagement.
Question 52: Which of the following is not considered a core diagnostic criterion for schizophrenia according to DSM-5?
- A. Catatonia
- B. Hallucinations
- C. Disorganized speech
- D. Social withdrawal (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Social withdrawal*** - While **social withdrawal** is a common clinical feature and often reflects negative symptoms in schizophrenia, it is **not specifically listed** as one of the **five core diagnostic criteria (Criterion A)** in DSM-5. - The five core symptom domains are: delusions, hallucinations, disorganized speech, grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior, and negative symptoms (diminished emotional expression or avolition). - Social withdrawal may be a manifestation of negative symptoms or part of **social/occupational dysfunction (Criterion B)**, but it is not itself a distinct core diagnostic criterion. *Catatonia* - **Catatonic behavior** (such as stupor, catalepsy, waxy flexibility, posturing, or mutism) is explicitly included as part of the **fourth core diagnostic criterion**: "Grossly disorganized or catatonic behavior." - This makes it one of the five primary symptom domains in **Criterion A** of DSM-5. - Note: "Catatonia" as a **specifier** (requiring 3+ out of 12 symptoms) is different from catatonic behavior as a core symptom. *Hallucinations* - **Hallucinations** (most commonly auditory, but can be visual, tactile, olfactory, or gustatory) are the **second core diagnostic criterion** in DSM-5. - At least **two of the five core symptoms** must be present, and hallucinations fulfill this requirement as a key **positive symptom**. *Disorganized speech* - **Disorganized speech** (formal thought disorder) is the **third core diagnostic criterion** for schizophrenia. - Characterized by **derailment, tangentiality, incoherence, or loose associations**, it reflects significant disruption in organized thinking and communication.
Question 53: Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
- A. Poor premorbid adjustment (Correct Answer)
- B. Male sex
- C. Presence of depression
- D. Blunted affect
Explanation: **Poor premorbid adjustment** - **Poor premorbid adjustment**, indicated by difficulties in social, academic, or occupational functioning before the onset of psychosis, is a consistent predictor of a worse outcome in schizophrenia. - This suggests a more pervasive and entrenched neurodevelopmental vulnerability impacting the individual's ability to cope and integrate socially. *Blunted affect (negative symptom)* - While **blunted affect** is a negative symptom often associated with poorer outcomes than positive symptoms, it is typically considered a *symptom* of the illness rather than a primary prognostic *factor* like premorbid adjustment. - Its presence contributes to disability, but it is not as strong an independent prognostic indicator as the life trajectory prior to illness onset. *Male sex (generally poorer prognosis)* - **Male sex** is generally associated with an **earlier age of onset** and often a **more severe course** of schizophrenia. - However, compared to significant functional impairment before disease onset, it is not as strong an individual predictor of overall long-term prognosis. *Presence of depression (often associated with better outcomes)* - The **presence of depressive symptoms** in schizophrenia is often associated with a **better prognosis**. - This is because depressive features can sometimes indicate a more preserved capacity for emotional experience and insight, which can align with higher functioning.
Question 54: Which of the following is considered a poor prognostic factor for schizophrenia?
- A. Presence of depression
- B. Presence of stressor
- C. Early onset (Correct Answer)
- D. Female sex
Explanation: ***Early onset*** - An **earlier age of onset** (e.g., childhood or early adolescence) for schizophrenia is consistently associated with a **worse long-term prognosis**, including more severe symptoms, greater functional impairment, and a lower likelihood of full recovery. - This is thought to be due to the greater developmental disruption caused by the illness when it begins at a younger age. *Presence of depression* - While depression is common in schizophrenia, it is generally considered to be a **treatable co-occurring condition** rather than a primary poor prognostic factor for the core psychotic disorder itself. - Effective treatment for depression can actually **improve overall quality of life** and adherence to antipsychotic medication. *Presence of stressor* - The presence of a significant psychosocial stressor at the onset of schizophrenia is often associated with a **better prognosis**, as it suggests a more reactive and potentially remitting course. - This indicates that the illness might be more environmentally triggered and less intrinsically severe. *Female sex* - **Female sex** is typically associated with a **somewhat better prognosis** in schizophrenia, with a later age of onset and potentially less severe symptoms compared to males. - This may be influenced by hormonal factors and differences in social support networks.
Question 55: In which socioeconomic strata is schizophrenia most commonly observed?
- A. Middle
- B. Upper
- C. Low (Correct Answer)
- D. Upper middle
Explanation: ***Low*** - Epidemiological studies consistently show a **higher prevalence of schizophrenia** in individuals from **lower socioeconomic strata**. - This association is explained by the "**social drift**" hypothesis, where individuals with schizophrenia experience a decline in social class due to the chronic and disabling nature of the illness, or the "**social causation**" hypothesis, which posits that adverse social conditions contribute to the development of the disorder. *Middle* - While individuals from all socioeconomic backgrounds can develop schizophrenia, it is **less common** compared to the lowest strata. - The middle socioeconomic group generally experiences **better access to resources** and support systems, which may mitigate some risk factors. *Upper* - Schizophrenia is **least common** in the upper socioeconomic strata. - Individuals in this group typically have **greater financial stability**, better living conditions, and access to high-quality healthcare, which might protect against environmental stressors. *Upper middle* - Similar to the middle and upper strata, the upper-middle class experiences a **lower prevalence of schizophrenia** compared to the low socioeconomic group. - This group often benefits from **good educational opportunities** and stable employment, reducing some of the psychosocial stressors associated with the disorder.
Question 56: What is the most likely neurochemical change associated with schizophrenia?
- A. Increased GABA activity
- B. Increased dopaminergic activity (Correct Answer)
- C. Decreased dopaminergic activity
- D. Decreased norepinephrine activity
Explanation: ***Increased dopaminergic activity*** - The **dopamine hypothesis** of schizophrenia posits that the positive symptoms (hallucinations, delusions) are mainly due to **hyperactivity of dopamine D2 receptors** in the mesolimbic pathway. - Most **antipsychotic medications** work by blocking these D2 receptors, reducing dopaminergic transmission and alleviating symptoms. *Increased GABA activity* - **GABA (gamma-aminobutyric acid)** is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain; *decreased* GABAergic activity has been implicated in schizophrenia, not increased. - A reduction in GABAergic interneurons can lead to **disinhibition** and contribute to cognitive deficits and positive symptoms. *Decreased dopaminergic activity* - While *decreased* dopamine activity in the **mesocortical pathway** (leading to the prefrontal cortex) is associated with the negative symptoms (e.g., avolition, anhedonia) and cognitive deficits of schizophrenia, the *primary* neurochemical change linked to the characteristic psychotic symptoms is an *increase* in mesolimbic dopamine. - Therefore, considering the overall presentation, **increased dopamine** is the most likely and direct answer. *Decreased norepinephrine activity* - Although **norepinephrine dysregulation** has been observed in schizophrenia, it is not considered the primary neurochemical change. - Changes in norepinephrine are often secondary or contribute to specific symptom clusters like **attention deficits** or mood disturbances rather than the core psychotic features.
Question 57: In stupor catatonia, all are seen except -
- A. Mutism
- B. Akinesia
- C. Catalepsy
- D. Agitation (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Agitation*** - **Stuporous catatonia** is characterized by a significant reduction or absence of motor activity and responsiveness, making **agitation**—increased motor activity—an unlikely feature. - In such a state, the patient is typically rigid, immobile, and unresponsive to external stimuli, which is the antithesis of agitation. *Catalepsy* - **Catalepsy** refers to a trance-like state with a loss of voluntary motion and active posturing, where the limbs maintain any position in which they are placed (waxy flexibility). - This is a hallmark feature of **catatonic stupor**, indicating a profound disturbance in motor control. *Mutism* - **Mutism** is the absence or profound reduction of speech, which is a common and defining feature of **catatonic stupor**. - Patients in a stuporous state typically do not speak or respond verbally to questions or commands. *Akinesia* - **Akinesia** is the absence of movement, or pronounced difficulty in initiating voluntary movements, which is a key component of **catatonic stupor**. - Patients exhibit severe motor retardation, often appearing frozen or rigid.
Question 58: Which of the following statements is NOT true about type 1 schizophrenia?
- A. It has a poor prognosis. (Correct Answer)
- B. Intellect is usually maintained.
- C. It is an acute illness.
- D. It is characterized by negative symptoms.
Explanation: ***It has a poor prognosis.*** - This statement is **NOT true** about type 1 schizophrenia, making it the correct answer to this question. - Type 1 schizophrenia is generally associated with a **better prognosis** and good response to antipsychotic medication. - It is characterized by the prominence of **positive symptoms**, which tend to be more responsive to treatment. *It is an acute illness.* - This statement is **TRUE** about type 1 schizophrenia, so it is not the answer. - Type 1 schizophrenia is often characterized by an **acute onset** of symptoms, particularly positive symptoms. - This acute presentation differentiates it from type 2, which typically has a more insidious onset. *Intellect is usually maintained.* - This statement is **TRUE** about type 1 schizophrenia, so it is not the answer. - In type 1 schizophrenia, **cognitive function**, including intellect, is usually better preserved compared to type 2 schizophrenia. - While some cognitive deficits may occur, they are generally less severe and less pervasive than in type 2. *It is characterized by negative symptoms.* - This statement is **FALSE** about type 1 schizophrenia, but it is not the best answer because the prognosis statement is more definitively incorrect. - Type 1 schizophrenia is primarily characterized by the predominance of **positive symptoms**, such as hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thought. - **Negative symptoms** (e.g., apathy, anhedonia, alogia, blunted affect) are the hallmark of type 2 schizophrenia.
Question 59: Ganser syndrome is classified under which of the following disorders?
- A. OCD
- B. Conversion disorder
- C. Dissociative disorder (Correct Answer)
- D. Schizoid personality disorder
Explanation: ***Dissociative disorder*** - Ganser syndrome is characterized by a "passing-off" behavior, where the individual gives **approximate or nonsensical answers** to simple questions, often associated with other dissociative symptoms. - While historically difficult to classify, contemporary understanding places it within the spectrum of dissociative disorders due to its features of an altered state of consciousness and a detachment from reality. *OCD* - **Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)** involves recurrent, intrusive thoughts (obsessions) and repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions). - Ganser syndrome does not typically present with the classic symptom profile of obsessions and compulsions. *Conversion disorder* - **Conversion disorder** involves neurological symptoms (e.g., paralysis, blindness, seizures) that are not consistent with neurological disease and are often preceded by psychological stress. - While both involve psychological factors, Ganser syndrome is distinct in its presentation of "answers" that are close but incorrect, rather than physical symptoms. *Schizoid personality disorder* - **Schizoid personality disorder** is characterized by a pervasive pattern of detachment from social relationships and a restricted range of expression of emotions in interpersonal settings. - This disorder primarily affects social functioning and emotional expression, which is different from the specific cognitive and behavioral pattern seen in Ganser syndrome.
Question 60: Which neurotransmitter is believed to be increased in mania?
- A. Decreased dopamine
- B. Increased dopamine (Correct Answer)
- C. Increased norepinephrine
- D. Decreased norepinephrine
Explanation: ***Increased dopamine*** - **Dopamine** is the primary neurotransmitter implicated in the pathophysiology of mania according to the **dopaminergic hypothesis** of mood disorders. - Increased dopaminergic activity in the **mesolimbic and mesocortical pathways** contributes to the core symptoms of mania including **euphoria**, **increased goal-directed activity**, **reduced need for sleep**, **psychosis**, and **impulsivity**. - Evidence includes: response to dopamine antagonists (antipsychotics) in treating mania, and dopamine agonists can precipitate manic episodes. - Studies using neuroimaging and CSF analysis support elevated dopamine activity during manic episodes. *Increased norepinephrine* - While norepinephrine is also increased in mania and contributes to **arousal**, **attention**, and **energy levels**, it is considered a secondary or contributory mechanism rather than the primary pathophysiological change. - The **catecholamine hypothesis** suggests both dopamine and norepinephrine are elevated, but dopamine plays the more central role in the characteristic manic symptoms. *Decreased dopamine* - Decreased dopamine is associated with **depression**, **Parkinson's disease**, and **negative symptoms of schizophrenia**, not mania. - Low dopamine leads to reduced motivation, anhedonia, psychomotor retardation, and lack of energy—the opposite of manic presentation. *Decreased norepinephrine* - Decreased norepinephrine is linked to **depressive states**, characterized by low energy, poor concentration, and reduced arousal. - This is directly contrary to the hyperarousal, excessive energy, and heightened activity seen in mania.