At what age (year) do arm span and height become the same?
Acrodermatitis enteropathica is associated with a deficiency of which of the following?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of caput succedaneum?
In a child having diarrhoea with perianal moist crust, which condition is most likely diagnosed?
The most common cause of meningitis in children aged 5 yrs is-
What is the APGAR score for a baby that grimaces in response to stimulation?
Most common syndrome associated with A-V canal defect -
What is the most appropriate method for administering asthma treatment to an infant under one year of age?
Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for bronchiolitis?
In which condition do symptoms improve with crying?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: At what age (year) do arm span and height become the same?
- A. 9
- B. 11 (Correct Answer)
- C. 13
- D. 15
Explanation: ***11*** - At approximately **11 years of age**, the arm span and height of an average individual become equal. - This equality is a **developmental milestone** often observed during childhood growth. *9* - At **9 years of age**, an individual's **arm span** is typically **less than their height**, as the extremities are still growing in proportion to the trunk. - The limbs are still developing, and the ratio of limb length to trunk length hasn't yet reached parity. *13* - By **13 years of age**, in most individuals, the **arm span generally exceeds the height**, especially during the adolescent growth spurt. - This is often a period of rapid growth where the limbs may grow faster than the trunk, leading to disproportion. *15* - At **15 years of age**, the **arm span typically continues to be greater than the height**, reflecting the fully developed adult proportions for most individuals. - Adult proportions, where arm span often slightly exceeds height, are typically established by this age.
Question 12: Acrodermatitis enteropathica is associated with a deficiency of which of the following?
- A. Zinc (Correct Answer)
- B. Manganese
- C. Copper
- D. Selenium
Explanation: ***Zinc*** - Acrodermatitis enteropathica is a rare, inherited metabolic disorder characterized by a **deficiency in zinc absorption** or utilization. - Clinical manifestations include a characteristic **periorificial and acral dermatitis**, alopecia, and diarrhea, all of which respond dramatically to zinc supplementation. *Manganese* - Manganese is a trace element essential for various enzyme functions, but its deficiency does not cause acrodermatitis enteropathica. - Deficiency symptoms include impaired growth, skeletal abnormalities, and reproductive problems. *Copper* - Copper deficiency can lead to anemia, neutropenia, and neurological problems, but it is not associated with acrodermatitis enteropathica. - Conditions like Menkes disease involve problems with copper transport and metabolism. *Selenium* - Selenium deficiency can contribute to Keshan disease (cardiomyopathy) and impaired immune function. - It is not directly linked to the dermatological and gastrointestinal symptoms seen in acrodermatitis enteropathica.
Question 13: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of caput succedaneum?
- A. Crosses the suture line
- B. Crosses midline
- C. It does not disappear within 2-3 days (Correct Answer)
- D. It is a diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp
Explanation: ***It does not disappear within 2-3 days*** - Caput succedaneum is a benign condition that typically resolves within **2 to 3 days** after birth as the edema is reabsorbed. - Therefore, a characteristic of caput succedaneum is that it *does* disappear relatively quickly, making the statement that it "does not disappear within 2-3 days" incorrect. *Crosses midline* - Caput succedaneum is a **diffuse swelling** that extends across the scalp and is **not limited by anatomical boundaries** like the midline of the skull. - This characteristic helps differentiate it from a **cephalohematoma**, which is typically confined to one side of the head. *Crosses the suture line* - The edema of caput succedaneum is in the **soft tissues superficial to the periosteum**, allowing it to **cross the suture lines** of the skull. - This is a key differentiating feature from a **cephalohematoma**, which is a subperiosteal hemorrhage and therefore confined by suture lines. *It is a diffuse edematous swelling of the soft tissues of the scalp* - This statement accurately describes caput succedaneum as a **collection of serosanguineous fluid** and **edema** in the most superficial layers of the scalp. - It results from pressure on the fetal scalp during labor, leading to **venous congestion** and extravasation of fluid.
Question 14: In a child having diarrhoea with perianal moist crust, which condition is most likely diagnosed?
- A. Acrodermatitis enteropathica (Correct Answer)
- B. Pellagra
- C. Riboflavin deficiency
- D. Kwashiorkor
Explanation: ***Acrodermatitis enteropathica*** - This condition is a **zinc deficiency** syndrome, which can be either inherited or acquired. - It presents with a classic triad of **diarrhoea**, **dermatitis** (often periorificial and acral with moist, crusted lesions), and **alopecia**. - The **perianal moist crust** is a characteristic finding of the periorificial dermatitis seen in this condition. *Pellagra* - Pellagra is caused by **niacin (Vitamin B3) deficiency** and is characterized by the "4 D's": **dermatitis** (often sun-exposed areas), **diarrhoea**, **dementia**, and eventually death. - The dermatitis of pellagra is typically **symmetrical, hyperpigmented, and photosensitive**, not moist perianal crusts, differentiating it from the presented case. *Riboflavin deficiency* - **Riboflavin deficiency** typically manifests as **cheilosis**, angular stomatitis, glossitis, and seborrheic dermatitis, but not specifically perianal moist crusts with diarrhoea. - While it can affect mucous membranes, the specific perianal presentation with diarrhoea points away from this diagnosis. *Kwashiorkor* - **Kwashiorkor** is a form of protein-energy malnutrition that can present with **diarrhoea** and skin changes (flaky paint dermatosis, hypopigmentation). - However, the skin changes are typically **desquamating** and affect dependent areas, not the characteristic **moist, crusted periorificial lesions** seen in zinc deficiency. - Kwashiorkor also typically presents with **edema**, which is not mentioned in this case.
Question 15: The most common cause of meningitis in children aged 5 yrs is-
- A. Staphylococcus
- B. E.coli
- C. H. influenzae
- D. S. pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***S. pneumoniae*** - **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** (Pneumococcus) is the **most common cause of bacterial meningitis** in children aged 5 years and older, as well as in adults. - Widespread vaccination has reduced its incidence but it remains a significant pathogen. *H. influenzae* - **_Haemophilus influenzae_ type b (Hib)** was a major cause of meningitis in young children, but its incidence has **drastically decreased** due to the routine **Hib vaccine**. - Without vaccination, it would still be a significant cause in this age group, but with high vaccine coverage, it is less common than _S. pneumoniae_. *Staphylococcus* - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** and other staphylococcal species are **less common causes of meningitis** in otherwise healthy children. - They are more typically associated with meningitis following **neurosurgery**, trauma, or in immunocompromised patients. *E.coli* - **_Escherichia coli_** is a common cause of **neonatal meningitis** (in infants less than 3 months old), often acquired during passage through the birth canal. - It is **rarely a cause of meningitis** in children aged 5 years.
Question 16: What is the APGAR score for a baby that grimaces in response to stimulation?
- A. 0
- B. 1 (Correct Answer)
- C. 2
- D. 3
Explanation: ***1*** - A score of **1** is given for **grimace** in response to stimulation, indicating some reflex irritability but not a vigorous cry or sneeze. - This response shows a minimal protective reflex, suggesting the baby is not completely flaccid but also not optimally responsive. - The APGAR scoring for reflex irritability ranges from 0 to 2, with grimacing specifically scoring **1 point**. *0* - A score of **0** for reflex irritability is reserved for **no response** or **complete absence** of reflexes. - This would indicate a severely depressed neurological state, unlike the grimace observed. *2* - A score of **2** for reflex irritability is given for a **vigorous cry**, **sneeze**, **cough**, or **active withdrawal** from stimulation. - A grimace is a less robust response than these, thus not warranting a score of 2. *3* - The APGAR scoring system uses a **0-2 scale** for each of the five components (Appearance, Pulse, Grimace, Activity, Respiration). - The maximum score for any single component is **2**, making 3 an invalid score. - Total APGAR scores range from 0-10, but individual components never exceed 2.
Question 17: Most common syndrome associated with A-V canal defect -
- A. Klinefelter syndrome
- B. Down syndrome (Correct Answer)
- C. Turner syndrome
- D. Marfan syndrome
Explanation: ***Down syndrome*** - **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** is the most common syndrome associated with **atrioventricular (AV) canal defects** (endocardial cushion defects) - Occurs in approximately **40-50% of individuals with Down syndrome**, making it the hallmark cardiac anomaly in this condition - AV canal defects range from partial to complete defects involving atrial and ventricular septa and AV valves *Klinefelter syndrome* - **Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY)** is not characteristically associated with AV canal defects - May have **mitral valve prolapse** or **aortic root dilation**, but AV canal defects are not a typical feature *Turner syndrome* - **Turner syndrome (45,X)** has distinct cardiovascular associations including **coarctation of the aorta** and **bicuspid aortic valve** - AV canal defects are **not** characteristic of Turner syndrome *Marfan syndrome* - **Marfan syndrome** is a connective tissue disorder with **aortic root dilation**, **aortic aneurysms**, and **mitral valve prolapse** - **AV canal defects are not a feature** of Marfan syndrome
Question 18: What is the most appropriate method for administering asthma treatment to an infant under one year of age?
- A. MDI with Mask (no spacer)
- B. Nebulizer therapy
- C. MDI with Spacer (no mask)
- D. MDI with Spacer and Mask (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***MDI with Spacer and Mask*** - For infants and young children, a **metered-dose inhaler (MDI)** used with a **spacer** and a **well-fitting mask** is the **most appropriate** method for delivering asthma medication. - The spacer helps to reduce the velocity of the aerosol and allows the infant to inhale the medication over several breaths, while the mask ensures the medication is delivered to the airways without significant loss. - This method is **portable**, **convenient**, and **cost-effective** for routine outpatient management. *MDI with Spacer (no mask)* - While a spacer is crucial for optimizing drug delivery from an MDI, an infant cannot effectively seal their lips around a spacer mouthpiece for proper inhalation. - This method would result in significant **medication loss** and insufficient dose delivery to the lungs. *MDI with Mask (no spacer)* - An MDI used directly with a mask without a spacer leads to inefficient drug delivery due to the **high velocity** of the aerosol spray. - The medication impinges on the back of the throat and face, reducing the amount that reaches the small airways. *Nebulizer therapy* - Nebulizers are also an **acceptable and effective option** for infants, particularly in acute settings or when families find them easier to use. - However, they are **time-consuming** (typically 10-15 minutes per treatment), require a power source or batteries, and are less portable than MDI systems. - For **routine outpatient management**, an MDI with spacer and mask is generally **preferred** due to its convenience, portability, and comparable efficacy when used correctly.
Question 19: Which of the following is not a recommended treatment for bronchiolitis?
- A. Bronchodilator
- B. Humid oxygen
- C. Macrolides (Correct Answer)
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Macrolides*** - **Macrolide antibiotics** are *not* recommended for treatment of **bronchiolitis**, as the condition is primarily caused by **viral infections** (mainly RSV), rendering antibiotics completely ineffective. - Bronchiolitis is a **viral illness**, and use of antibiotics like macrolides provides *no benefit*, increases risk of **antibiotic resistance**, and may cause unnecessary side effects. - This is the **most clearly not recommended** option among the choices. *Humid oxygen* - While **supplemental oxygen** is indicated for infants with **hypoxemia** (oxygen saturation <90%), **routine humidification** of oxygen is *not specifically recommended* by current guidelines. - Evidence does *not support* routine use of humidified oxygen therapy in bronchiolitis. - However, supplemental oxygen itself (when needed for low oxygen levels) is appropriate supportive care. *Bronchodilator* - **Bronchodilators** (like albuterol or salbutamol) are *not routinely recommended* for bronchiolitis, as most infants do not have significant **bronchospasm** and show *no sustained benefit*. - Guidelines suggest a **trial dose** may be considered, but should be *discontinued* if there is no clear clinical improvement. - The primary pathology is **bronchiolar inflammation and mucus plugging**, not reversible bronchospasm. *All of the options* - This option is incorrect because the question asks for what is "*not* recommended." - **Macrolides** are the most definitively not recommended, as they are completely ineffective against viral infections. - While bronchodilators and routine humidification also lack strong evidence, **macrolides** represent inappropriate therapy with no mechanism of benefit.
Question 20: In which condition do symptoms improve with crying?
- A. Tetralogy of Fallot
- B. Choanal atresia (Correct Answer)
- C. Bronchial asthma
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Choanal atresia*** - In **bilateral choanal atresia**, a newborn is unable to breathe through the nose due to a bony or membranous obstruction. Symptoms like **cyanosis** worsen with feeding and improve with crying because crying involves **mouth breathing**, which bypasses the nasal obstruction. - This condition is a **medical emergency** as newborns are obligate nasal breathers, and immediate intervention (e.g., oral airway, surgical repair) is often required. *Tetralogy of Fallot* - This congenital heart defect can lead to **cyanotic spells** (hypercyanotic or "tet" spells), which are characterized by increased cyanosis, tachypnea, and irritability. These spells are often precipitated by activities that increase right-to-left shunting, and **crying can worsen them** rather than improve them due to increased systemic oxygen demand and vascular resistance. - Management often involves positioning (knee-chest) and medications to reduce pulmonary vascular resistance or increase systemic vascular resistance, to alleviate shunting. *Bronchial asthma* - **Crying is a common trigger for asthma attacks** in children, as it can induce bronchoconstriction due to hyperventilation and airway irritation. Symptoms typically worsen with crying, leading to **wheezing, coughing, and shortness of breath**. - Asthma is characterized by **reversible airway obstruction** and airway hyperresponsiveness, and its symptoms do not improve with crying. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **choanal atresia** is a condition where symptoms (specifically cyanosis) do improve with crying due to the switch from nasal to mouth breathing.