ENT
3 questionsWhat condition is characterized by a bluish appearance of the tympanic membrane?
What is the treatment of choice for atticoantral type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)?
Posterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: What condition is characterized by a bluish appearance of the tympanic membrane?
- A. Otitis media with effusion (Correct Answer)
- B. Chronic suppurative otitis media
- C. Normal tympanic membrane
- D. Tympanic membrane perforation
Explanation: ***Otitis media with effusion (with hemotympanum)*** - A bluish appearance of the tympanic membrane is characteristically seen when there is **blood in the middle ear space (hemotympanum)**, which can occur in **otitis media with effusion containing hemorrhagic fluid**. - The blue discoloration results from **blood or hemorrhagic effusion** behind the intact tympanic membrane, which imparts a blue or purple hue when visualized through the translucent drum. - This can occur with **traumatic hemotympanum** (basal skull fracture, temporal bone trauma), **hemorrhagic OME**, or in patients with **bleeding disorders**. - Classic causes of blue tympanic membrane include middle ear hemorrhage associated with effusion. *Chronic suppurative otitis media* - CSOM typically involves persistent **purulent (pus-filled) discharge** and often a **perforation of the tympanic membrane**. - The tympanic membrane in CSOM is usually **inflamed, thickened, or perforated**, with active mucopurulent drainage rather than a bluish tinge. - The blue discoloration specifically indicates **blood in the middle ear**, not purulent infection. *Normal tympanic membrane* - A normal tympanic membrane is **pearly gray, translucent**, and mobile, with a visible cone of light and normal middle ear landmarks. - It does not exhibit bluish discoloration, which specifically indicates **underlying hemorrhage or hemorrhagic fluid** in the middle ear space. *Tympanic membrane perforation* - A perforation is a **visible hole or defect in the eardrum**, often with evidence of drainage. - While perforations can occur with various middle ear pathologies, a **blue/purple discoloration of an intact drum** specifically indicates **hemotympanum** (blood behind the membrane), not a perforation itself.
Question 902: What is the treatment of choice for atticoantral type of chronic suppurative otitis media (CSOM)?
- A. Tympanoplasty
- B. Modified radical mastoidectomy (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Antibiotics
Explanation: ***Modified radical mastoidectomy*** - The **atticoantral type of CSOM** is characterized by active **cholesteatoma**, which requires surgical removal to prevent further bone erosion and complications. - A **modified radical mastoidectomy** is the treatment of choice as it removes the cholesteatoma and diseased mastoid air cells while aiming to preserve residual hearing. *Antibiotics* - While topical or systemic antibiotics may be used to control acute infections or discharge in CSOM, they do not eradicate **cholesteatoma**. - **Cholesteatoma** is an epidermoid cyst that requires surgical excision, as antibiotics alone cannot resolve it. *Tympanoplasty* - **Tympanoplasty** is primarily performed to reconstruct the tympanic membrane (eardrum) and/or the ossicular chain to restore hearing. - It is typically indicated for the **tubotympanic type of CSOM** (safe type) without cholesteatoma, not for the atticoantral type which involves cholesteatoma. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **modified radical mastoidectomy** is a well-established and necessary treatment for the atticoantral type of CSOM involving cholesteatoma.
Question 903: Posterosuperior retraction pocket if allowed to progress will lead to?
- A. SNHL
- B. Secondary cholesteatoma
- C. Primary cholesteatoma (Correct Answer)
- D. Tympanosclerosis
Explanation: ***Primary cholesteatoma*** - A posterosuperior retraction pocket is a common precursor to the development of a **primary cholesteatoma**. - This pocket, formed by **negative pressure** in the middle ear, accumulates **desquamated keratin** and can erode surrounding bone. *SNHL* - While a cholesteatoma can ultimately cause **sensorineural hearing loss (SNHL)** due to extensive bone erosion affecting the inner ear, it is a later complication, not the direct outcome of the initial retraction pocket itself. - **SNHL** is more commonly associated with conditions directly damaging the **cochlea or auditory nerve**. *Secondary cholesteatoma* - A **secondary cholesteatoma** typically arises from a perforation in the tympanic membrane where skin migrates into the middle ear, not from an intact retraction pocket. - This condition is also known as a **'migratory'** or **'acquired'** cholesteatoma. *Tympanosclerosis* - **Tympanosclerosis** involves the formation of **hyalinized collagen and calcium deposits** within the tympanic membrane or middle ear mucosa, resulting from chronic inflammation or previous trauma. - It is a **fibrotic healing response** and does not directly result from a retraction pocket, although both can be sequelae of chronic otitis media.
Internal Medicine
6 questionsInterstitial nephritis is common with
What is the primary clinical feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
Calciphylaxis is a severe life-threatening condition. Which of the following is most commonly associated with it?
A diabetic patient presents with hyperkalemia and urinary pH < 5.5. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?
Hyperkalemia aciduria is seen in
Which of the following is not a feature of distal renal tubular acidosis
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: Interstitial nephritis is common with
- A. Black water fever
- B. Rhabdomyolysis
- C. Tumor lysis syndrome
- D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)*** - **NSAIDs** are a known cause of **acute interstitial nephritis** (AIN), an inflammatory condition affecting the tubules and interstitium of the kidney [1]. - This adverse reaction often manifests as **fever**, **rash**, **eosinophilia**, and **acute kidney injury**, typically 7-10 days after drug exposure. *Black water fever* - **Blackwater fever** is a severe complication of **malaria**, characterized by massive hemolysis leading to **hemoglobinuria**, which darkens the urine. - It primarily causes **acute kidney injury** through **acute tubular necrosis** due to hemoglobin precipitation in the renal tubules, not interstitial nephritis. *Rhabdomyolysis* - **Rhabdomyolysis** involves the breakdown of muscle tissue, releasing myoglobin into the bloodstream, which is toxic to the kidneys. [1] - This condition leads to **acute kidney injury** predominantly through **acute tubular necrosis** due to myoglobin casts obstructing tubules and direct toxicity, not interstitial inflammation. *Tumor lysis syndrome* - **Tumor lysis syndrome** occurs when large numbers of cancer cells are rapidly destroyed, releasing intracellular contents like potassium, phosphate, and nucleic acids. - The high concentration of **uric acid** and **phosphate** in the renal tubules leads to crystal formation, causing **acute kidney injury** primarily through **acute uric acid nephropathy** and **phosphate nephropathy**, rather than interstitial nephritis [1].
Question 902: What is the primary clinical feature of Henoch-Schonlein purpura?
- A. Abdominal pain due to vasculitis
- B. Joint pain associated with the condition
- C. Kidney involvement in the disease
- D. Skin rash characterized by palpable purpura (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Skin rash characterized by palpable purpura*** - **Palpable purpura** is the hallmark cutaneous manifestation of **Henoch-Schonlein purpura (HSP)**, a small-vessel vasculitis [1]. - This rash typically appears on the **lower extremities and buttocks**, reflecting the deposition of IgA in vessel walls [1]. *Abdominal pain due to vasculitis* - While **abdominal pain** is a common feature of HSP due to gastrointestinal vasculitis, it is not considered the primary clinical feature [1]. - Gastrointestinal involvement can manifest with pain, bleeding, and intussusception, but the **skin rash** is more consistently present and diagnostic. *Joint pain associated with the condition* - **Arthralgia** or **arthritis** (joint pain) is seen in a significant number of HSP patients, particularly in the knees and ankles. - However, it is a secondary manifestation, and not the **defining primary sign** of the disease. *Kidney involvement in the disease* - **Renal involvement**, presenting as hematuria and proteinuria, occurs in about one-third of HSP cases and can lead to serious long-term complications. - Despite its significance for prognosis, **kidney disease** is a later and not universally present feature, making the rash the most critical initial diagnostic clue.
Question 903: Calciphylaxis is a severe life-threatening condition. Which of the following is most commonly associated with it?
- A. Parathyroidectomy
- B. Medullary carcinoma thyroid
- C. Hyperthyroidism
- D. End stage Renal disease (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***End stage Renal disease*** - Calciphylaxis frequently occurs in patients with **end-stage renal disease**, primarily associated with **secondary hyperparathyroidism** [1] and **calcium-phosphate imbalance**. - It leads to **cutaneous ischemia** and necrosis, often requiring aggressive management due to its high **mortality rate**. *Parathyroidectomy* - While parathyroidectomy may affect calcium levels, it is not directly linked to calciphylaxis. - Calciphylaxis more commonly develops due to underlying **chronic renal failure** [1] rather than surgical interventions. *Hyperthyroidism* - Hyperthyroidism primarily causes symptoms related to metabolism, **thyroid hormone excess**, and does not lead to calciphylaxis. - There is no direct correlation between hyperthyroid states and the pathophysiology of calciphylaxis. *Medullary carcinoma thyroid* - This condition involves **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, associated with calcitonin production and does not cause calciphylaxis. - Patients typically experience **thyroid-related symptoms** rather than the vascular complications seen in calciphylaxis.
Question 904: A diabetic patient presents with hyperkalemia and urinary pH < 5.5. What is the MOST likely underlying cause?
- A. Uremia
- B. Primary hyperaldosteronism
- C. Type IV RTA (Correct Answer)
- D. Type I Renal tubular acidosis
Explanation: ***Type IV RTA*** - Patients with **diabetes mellitus** frequently develop **hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism**, leading to Type IV RTA [1]. - This condition is characterized by **hyperkalemia** and **acidosis** with a paradoxically low urinary pH (typically < 5.5). *Uremia* - **Uremia** can cause hyperkalemia and acidosis, but it is a broader term for severe kidney failure and not the most specific underlying cause for the given urinary findings. - While patients with uremia can have aciduria, the combination of **diabetic hyperkalemia** and acid urine points more directly to a specific tubular defect. *Primary hyperaldosteronism* - **Primary hyperaldosteronism** is characterized by **hypertension**, **hypokalemia**, and metabolic alkalosis, which is the opposite of the patient's presentation [1]. - This condition involves excessive aldosterone production, leading to increased potassium excretion [1]. *Type I Renal tubular acidosis* - **Type I RTA** (distal RTA) is characterized by the inability to acidify urine, resulting in a **urinary pH > 5.5** despite systemic acidosis [1]. - While it can cause hypokalemia (due to increased distal K+ secretion) and acidosis, the elevated urinary pH is a key differentiating factor from this patient's presentation [1].
Question 905: Hyperkalemia aciduria is seen in
- A. Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis
- B. Type IV Renal Tubular Acidosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Sigmoidocolostomy procedure
- D. Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis
Explanation: Type IV Renal Tubular Acidosis - This condition is characterized by **hyperkalemia** and **aciduria**, often due to a deficiency in aldosterone or a renal tubular insensitivity to aldosterone [1]. - The impaired aldosterone action leads to reduced potassium excretion and decreased ammonium production, both contributing to **hyperkalemia** and metabolic acidosis [1]. *Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis* - Type I RTA (distal RTA) is characterized by a defect in acid secretion in the distal tubule, leading to **hypokalemia** and metabolic acidosis with persistently high urine pH [2]. - Patients typically excrete an alkaline urine despite systemic acidosis, contrasting with the aciduria seen with hyperkalemia [2]. *Sigmoidocolostomy procedure* - A sigmoidocolostomy can lead to **hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis** due to the reabsorption of chloride and excretion of bicarbonate by the colonic mucosa. - However, it typically causes **hypokalemia** as potassium is secreted into the colonic lumen from the blood. *Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis* - Type II RTA (proximal RTA) involves a defect in bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, resulting in **hypokalemia** and metabolic acidosis. - The kidney's ability to acidify urine is still largely intact in the distal nephron once the bicarbonate buffer system is overwhelmed.
Question 906: Which of the following is not a feature of distal renal tubular acidosis
- A. Renal hypercalciuria
- B. Normal anion gap
- C. Hyperkalemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Alkaline urine
Explanation: ***Hyperkalemia*** - **Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA)** is characterized by impaired acid excretion, leading to metabolic acidosis. The impaired excretion of acid is often accompanied by impaired potassium secretion, resulting in **hypokalemia**, not hyperkalemia. - While hyperkalemia is a feature of **type 4 RTA**, which is characterized by hypoaldosteronism or renal tubular unresponsiveness to aldosterone, it is not a feature of **distal RTA (type 1)**. [1] *Normal anion gap* - **Distal RTA** is a form of **normal anion gap metabolic acidosis**, also known as **hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis**. [1] - The anion gap is calculated as [Na+] - ([Cl-] + [HCO3-]), and in dRTA, the bicarbonate loss is compensated by an increase in chloride, maintaining a normal anion gap. *Renal hypercalciuria* - **Distal RTA** is associated with **impaired acid excretion**, which leads to chronic metabolic acidosis. - This **acidosis** promotes the dissolution of bone, releasing calcium, and decreases tubular reabsorption of calcium, resulting in **hypercalciuria**. *Alkaline urine* - In **distal RTA**, the distal tubule is unable to acidify the urine due to a defect in hydrogen ion secretion. - This leads to a persistent **urine pH > 5.5** (typically alkaline or inappropriately normal) despite systemic acidosis, making it a key diagnostic feature. [1]
Radiology
1 questionsWhat are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: What are the X-ray findings associated with chronic otitis media?
- A. Honeycombing of mastoid
- B. Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid (Correct Answer)
- C. Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells
- D. Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells
Explanation: ***Sclerosis with cavity in mastoid*** - Chronic otitis media leads to **long-standing inflammation** and **destruction** of the mastoid air cells, resulting in dense, **sclerotic bone** with cavity formation due to bone erosion. - This is the **characteristic X-ray finding** in chronic otitis media, indicating osseous remodeling and bone destruction from persistent infection. - The sclerosis represents reactive bone formation, while cavities form from **coalescence** of destroyed air cells. *Honeycombing of mastoid* - Honeycombing describes a **normal, well-pneumatized mastoid** with numerous small, distinct air cells visible on X-ray. - This appearance indicates a healthy mastoid bone with good aeration and is **inconsistent** with chronic inflammation. - Chronic otitis media causes bone remodeling and sclerosis, **not** preserved pneumatization. *Clear-cut distinct bony partition between cells* - This describes **normal mastoid anatomy** where air cells are well-defined and separated by thin, intact bony septa. - In chronic otitis media, these septa are typically **eroded or thickened** by inflammation, leading to loss of distinctness. - The inflammatory process causes destruction and sclerosis, **not** preservation of normal architecture. *Increased pneumatization of mastoid cells* - Increased pneumatization indicates **excessive air cell development**, which is opposite to the changes seen in chronic infection. - Chronic otitis media causes **destruction and sclerosis** of air cells, not increased pneumatization. - This would be seen in normal developmental variants, not chronic inflammatory disease.