Anatomy
2 questionsLymphatic drainage of oropharynx is mainly through?
Inlet of larynx is formed by:
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: Lymphatic drainage of oropharynx is mainly through?
- A. Superficial cervical lymph nodes
- B. Submandibular nodes
- C. Jugulodigastric node (Correct Answer)
- D. Jugulo-omohyoid nodes
Explanation: ***Jugulodigastric node*** - The **jugulodigastric node** (also known as the principal node of Küttner) is the primary drainage site for infections and malignancies of the posterior third of the tongue and tonsils, which are key components of the oropharynx. - It is a prominent node within the **deep cervical lymph node** chain, specifically located in the superior deep cervical group. *Superficial cervical lymph nodes* - These nodes primarily drain the superficial structures of the neck, scalp, and ear, and are **not the main drainage pathway** for the oropharynx. - They form a chain along the external jugular vein. *Submandibular nodes* - The **submandibular nodes** mainly drain the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, gums, floor of the mouth, and anterior face. - While part of the oral cavity, they are **not the primary drainage** for the oropharynx itself. *Jugulo-omohyoid nodes* - The **jugulo-omohyoid node** is located lower in the deep cervical chain, near the intermediate tendon of the omohyoid muscle. - It is a key drainage node for the **anterior tongue**, but not the primary or main drainage for the entire oropharynx.
Question 792: Inlet of larynx is formed by:
- A. Aryepiglottic fold (Correct Answer)
- B. Vocal cord
- C. False vocal cord
- D. Folds from the base of the tongue to the epiglottis
Explanation: ***Aryepiglottic fold*** - The **inlet of the larynx** is the opening into the laryngeal cavity from the pharynx. - It is bordered anteriorly by the **epiglottis**, laterally by the **aryepiglottic folds**, and posteriorly by the **arytenoid cartilages** and **interarytenoid notch**. *False vocal cord* - The **false vocal cords** (ventricular folds) are located within the laryngeal cavity, inferior to the inlet. - They play a protective role but do not form the boundaries of the laryngeal inlet itself. *Folds from the base of the tongue to the epiglottis* - These folds, including the **glossoepiglottic folds**, connect the tongue to the epiglottis. - They are superior to the laryngeal inlet and are part of the oropharynx, not direct borders of the inlet. *Vocal cord* - The **true vocal cords** are responsible for voice production and are located deeper within the larynx, inferior to the false vocal cords. - They do not form any part of the laryngeal inlet.
ENT
3 questionsWhat is the characteristic feature of ethmoidal polyps?
Which of the following statements about acute retropharyngeal abscess is true?
Which part of the larynx is most commonly involved in tuberculosis (TB)?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: What is the characteristic feature of ethmoidal polyps?
- A. Usually multiple
- B. Typically recurrent (Correct Answer)
- C. Can occur in children
- D. Can be associated with infections
Explanation: ***Typically recurrent*** - Ethmoidal polyps, especially those associated with **chronic rhinosinusitis** with nasal polyps, have a high tendency to **recur** even after surgical removal. - This recurrence is due to the underlying inflammatory process in the ethmoid sinuses and represents their most characteristic clinical feature. - Recurrence rates can reach **20-30%** even after functional endoscopic sinus surgery (FESS). *Usually multiple* - While ethmoidal polyps are often **multiple**, this is a common descriptive feature rather than their most characteristic pathological tendency. - Their multiplicity contributes to nasal obstruction and other symptoms but does not distinguish them as uniquely as their recurrence rate. *Can occur in children* - Though less common than in adults, **ethmoidal polyps can occur in children**, particularly in association with conditions like cystic fibrosis or primary ciliary dyskinesia. - However, nasal polyps in children are **rare** and should prompt investigation for underlying systemic conditions. *Can be associated with infections* - While chronic rhinosinusitis with polyps can be complicated by **bacterial infections**, the polyps themselves are primarily an inflammatory response, not directly caused by infections in most cases of ethmoidal polyps. - Their primary association is with chronic inflammation and not solely with acute or chronic infections.
Question 792: Which of the following statements about acute retropharyngeal abscess is true?
- A. Treatment often involves incision and drainage.
- B. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is common in adults.
- C. Swelling typically occurs unilaterally.
- D. Acute retropharyngeal abscess is often due to lymphadenitis. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Acute retropharyngeal abscess is often due to lymphadenitis.*** - The **retropharyngeal lymph nodes** (nodes of Rouviere) are prominent in children and drain the nasopharynx, oropharynx, and paranasal sinuses. Infection in these areas can lead to **suppurative lymphadenitis**, which can then progress to an abscess. - **Lymphadenitis** following an upper respiratory tract infection is the **most common etiology** in children, who represent the majority of cases. This is a characteristic pathophysiological mechanism specific to retropharyngeal abscesses. - While other causes exist (trauma, foreign bodies, odontogenic infections in adults), this statement best captures the typical presentation and etiology. *Acute retropharyngeal abscess is common in adults.* - **Retropharyngeal abscesses** are far more common in **children**, especially those under 6 years of age, due to the presence of prominent retropharyngeal lymph nodes that typically atrophy by age 5-6. - In adults, retropharyngeal abscesses are rarer and usually result from trauma, foreign bodies, or odontogenic infections rather than lymphadenitis. *Swelling typically occurs unilaterally.* - The **retropharyngeal space** is a **midline structure**, and infection typically causes **bilateral** or central swelling. - **Edema and inflammation** affect the entire space, leading to generalized posterior pharyngeal wall bulging rather than true unilateral presentation. - While some asymmetry may be visible, describing the swelling as "typically unilateral" is inaccurate. *Treatment often involves incision and drainage.* - While this statement is technically true for **mature abscesses**, it is **incomplete** as a characterizing statement about retropharyngeal abscesses. - Treatment depends on stage: **early phlegmon or cellulitis** may respond to **intravenous antibiotics alone**, while a **mature abscess** requires both **I&D and antibiotics**. - The statement lacks the important context that **antibiotics are the cornerstone** of treatment, with surgical drainage reserved for established abscesses. - This is a treatment modality rather than a defining characteristic of the condition, making it a less complete answer than the etiology-based statement.
Question 793: Which part of the larynx is most commonly involved in tuberculosis (TB)?
- A. Anterior
- B. Posterior (Correct Answer)
- C. Middle
- D. Anywhere
Explanation: ***Posterior*** - The **posterior larynx**, specifically the **arytenoids** and **interarytenoid area**, is the most common site for tuberculosis involvement. - This region is susceptible due to its rich **lymphatic supply** and direct exposure to infected secretions from the lungs. *Anterior* - While TB can affect any part of the larynx, the **anterior laryngeal structures** are less frequently the primary site of involvement. - The vocal cords, which are in the anterior-middle aspect, are less commonly affected initially compared to the posterior structures. *Middle* - The middle part of the larynx, including the **vocal cords**, is not the predominant site for initial tuberculous lesions. - Involvement here often occurs as the disease progresses from more commonly affected areas. *Anywhere* - Although TB can theoretically affect any part of the larynx, it demonstrates a strong predilection for the **posterior laryngeal region**. - Stating "anywhere" does not accurately reflect the statistically significant preference for specific anatomical sites.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsMost common cause of retropharyngeal abscess in adults?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: Most common cause of retropharyngeal abscess in adults?
- A. Tonsillitis
- B. Lymphadenitis (Correct Answer)
- C. Tooth extraction
- D. TB
Explanation: ***Lymphadenitis*** - **Lymphadenitis** in the retropharyngeal space, often secondary to an upper respiratory tract infection, is the most common cause of retropharyngeal abscesses in adults. - The infection spreads from inflamed lymph nodes to form a **purulent collection** in the potential space behind the pharynx. *TB* - **Tuberculosis (TB)** can cause retropharyngeal abscesses, particularly in immunocompromised individuals or endemic areas, but it is less common than pyogenic infections [1]. - TB abscesses tend to be more **chronic** and may be associated with vertebral involvement (Pott's disease) [1]. *Tooth extraction* - While dental infections, including complications from **tooth extraction**, can lead to deep neck space infections, they are not the most common cause of retropharyngeal abscess specifically. - Infections from teeth more often spread to the **submandibular** or **parapharyngeal spaces**. *Tonsillitis* - **Tonsillitis** is a common cause of pharyngeal inflammation and can lead to peritonsillar abscesses, which are distinct from retropharyngeal abscesses. - While severe tonsillitis can occasionally spread to the retropharyngeal space, it is primarily local and less common than direct lymphatic seeding.
Microbiology
2 questionsWhat is the most common cause of acute tonsillitis?
What is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: What is the most common cause of acute tonsillitis?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. H. influenzae
- C. Staphylococcus aureus
- D. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci*** - **Group A Streptococcus (GAS)**, specifically *Streptococcus pyogenes*, is the most frequent bacterial cause of **acute tonsillitis** and pharyngitis, especially in school-aged children. - Infection can lead to complications such as **rheumatic fever** and **post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis** if not appropriately treated. *Streptococcus pneumoniae* - While *S. pneumoniae* is a common cause of **otitis media**, **sinusitis**, and **pneumonia**, it is less commonly the primary cause of acute tonsillitis. - It typically causes respiratory infections involving the lower airways or adjacent structures rather than primarily tonsillar inflammation. *H. Influenza* - *Haemophilus influenzae* is a significant pathogen for **otitis media**, **epiglottitis**, and **meningitis**, particularly in unvaccinated children. - It is not a common primary cause of acute tonsillitis, which is predominantly bacterial or viral. *Staphylococcus aureus* - *Staphylococcus aureus* is often associated with **skin and soft tissue infections**, as well as more serious conditions like **sepsis** and **endocarditis**. - Although it can cause pharyngeal infections, it is an infrequent cause of acute tonsillitis compared to Group A Streptococcus.
Question 792: What is the most common cause of a peritonsillar abscess?
- A. Streptococcus pneumoniae
- B. Staphylococcus aureus
- C. H. influenzae
- D. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Group A beta-hemolytic streptococcus*** - This bacterium, also known as **_Streptococcus pyogenes_**, is the most common cause of **streptococcal pharyngitis**, which is the precursor to most peritonsillar abscesses. - Peritonsillar abscesses are typically a complication of untreated or inadequately treated **tonsillitis**. *Streptococcus pneumoniae* - While **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** can cause upper respiratory infections like sinusitis and otitis media, it is not the primary cause of peritonsillar abscesses. - Its infections are more commonly associated with **pneumonia** and **meningitis**. *Staphylococcus aureus* - **_Staphylococcus aureus_** is a common cause of skin and soft tissue infections, but it is less frequently isolated as the primary pathogen in peritonsillar abscesses. - It can be involved in **polymicrobial infections** or as a secondary invader. *H. influenzae* - **_Haemophilus influenzae_** can cause various infections, particularly in children, such as otitis media and epiglottitis. - However, it is not considered the most common cause of **peritonsillar abscesses**.
Radiology
1 questionsTear drop sign is seen in?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: Tear drop sign is seen in?
- A. Fracture zygomatic arch
- B. Fracture maxilla
- C. Fracture mandible
- D. Blow out fracture (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Blow out fracture*** - The **tear drop sign** on imaging (often CT scan) is characteristic of an **orbital blow-out fracture**, indicating herniation of orbital contents (fat, muscle) into the maxillary sinus. - This fracture typically involves the **orbital floor** or medial wall, often caused by a blunt force trauma to the eye. *Fracture zygomatic arch* - A fracture of the zygomatic arch is often associated with a **flattening of the malar prominence** rather than a "tear drop" sign. - It might lead to restricted jaw movement if the arch impinges on the coronoid process. *Fracture maxilla* - Maxillary fractures (e.g., Le Fort fractures) involve the midface bones and cause **facial deformity**, malocclusion, and mobility of the maxilla. - The tear drop sign is not a primary diagnostic feature of maxillary fractures. *Fracture mandible* - Mandibular fractures present with pain, swelling, and **malocclusion** of the teeth. - Imaging would reveal a break in the mandible, not a tear drop sign associated with orbital contents.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich fracture pattern is classified as a Le Fort I fracture?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 791: Which fracture pattern is classified as a Le Fort I fracture?
- A. Pyramidal fracture involving maxilla and nasal bones
- B. Complete craniofacial separation involving the upper face
- C. Isolated nasal bone fracture
- D. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla separating teeth from upper jaw (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Horizontal fracture of the maxilla separating teeth from upper jaw** - A **Le Fort I fracture** is a **horizontal fracture** that detaches the entire **maxillary arch**, including the **palate** and **alveolar process**, from the rest of the facial skeleton. - This fracture line typically extends **above the level of the nasal floor** and involves the **pterygoid plates**. *Pyramidal fracture involving maxilla and nasal bones* - This description corresponds to a **Le Fort II fracture**, which is a **pyramidal fracture** involving the **nasal bones**, **medial walls of the orbits**, and the **maxilla**. - It creates a central fragment that includes the **nasal bridge** and part of the maxilla, separating it from the frontal bone. *Complete craniofacial separation involving the upper face* - This refers to a **Le Fort III fracture**, also known as **craniofacial disjunction**. - It involves the separation of the entire **midfacial skeleton** from the **cranial base**, often extending through the **zygomaticofrontal sutures** and **nasofrontal sutures**. *Isolated nasal bone fracture* - An **isolated nasal bone fracture** involves only the nasal bones and does not extend into the maxilla or other facial structures. - It is a much more **localized injury** compared to any of the Le Fort fracture patterns.