Anatomy
9 questionsCollecting part of kidney develops from ?
At which level do the somites initially form?
Pubic symphysis is which type of joint?
All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
Which of the following statements about the mammary gland is false?
Which muscle is not part of the superficial anterior compartment of the forearm?
Which muscle receives a muscular branch from the ulnar nerve?
What is the largest branch of the brachial plexus?
How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Collecting part of kidney develops from ?
- A. Mesonephros
- B. Metanephros
- C. Ureteric bud (Correct Answer)
- D. Pronephros
Explanation: ***Ureteric bud*** - The **ureteric bud** (also known as the metanephric diverticulum) is an outgrowth of the **mesonephric duct** that develops into the collecting system of the kidney. - It gives rise to the **ureter**, **renal pelvis**, major and minor calyces, and all collecting ducts. *Pronephros* - **Pronephros** is the earliest, most rudimentary, and transient excretory structure that appears in human embryos. - It is non-functional in humans and **degenerates completely** by the fourth week of gestation. *Mesonephros* - The **mesonephros** develops after the pronephros and functions as a temporary kidney during the early fetal period (weeks 4-8). - Its tubules primarily contribute to the **male reproductive system** (e.g., epididymis, ductus deferens) and **degenerate** in females. *Metanephros* - The **metanephros** is the definitive kidney in mammals and gives rise to the **nephrons** (glomeruli, Bowman's capsule, proximal and distal convoluted tubules, loop of Henle). - While it's crucial for kidney development, the **collecting part** specifically originates from the ureteric bud, which interacts with the metanephric mesenchyme.
Question 72: At which level do the somites initially form?
- A. Lumbar level
- B. Sacral level
- C. Cervical level (Correct Answer)
- D. Thoracic level
Explanation: Cervical level - Somites, which are segmented blocks of paraxial mesoderm, initially appear in the **occipital/cranial cervical region** of the developing embryo around day 20 of development. - The first somite pair forms at the **occipital level**, and subsequent somites develop in a **cranio-caudal sequence**. - Development proceeds both cranially (forming occipital somites) and caudally (forming cervical, thoracic, lumbar, and sacral somites) from this initial formation. - By the end of the 5th week, approximately **42-44 somite pairs** are present. *Thoracic level* - Thoracic somites form subsequent to the initial occipital/cervical somites, as the segmentation process extends caudally. - The formation of somites is a sequential process along the **cranio-caudal axis**. *Lumbar level* - Lumbar somites develop later in the embryological timeline, after the cervical and thoracic regions have undergone somite formation. - The **caudal regions** receive somites progressively as development continues. *Sacral level* - Sacral somites are among the last to form, representing the caudal extent of somite development. - Their formation follows the cranio-caudal progression of somite appearance.
Question 73: Pubic symphysis is which type of joint?
- A. Gomphosis
- B. Fibrous joint
- C. Primary cartilaginous
- D. Secondary cartilaginous (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Secondary cartilaginous*** - The **pubic symphysis** is a classic example of a **secondary cartilaginous joint**, also known as a **symphysis**. - These joints are characterized by a plate of **fibrocartilage** sandwiched between two layers of hyaline cartilage, uniting two bones and allowing for limited movement. *Gomphosis* - A **gomphosis** is a type of **fibrous joint** where a peg-like process fits into a socket, primarily found in the attachment of teeth to their sockets in the jaw. - It is distinct from the cartilaginous structure of the pubic symphysis. *Fibrous joint* - While fibrous joints are characterized by fibrous connective tissue connecting bones, this category is too broad, and doesn't specify the unique cartilaginous nature of the pubic symphysis. - Examples include sutures in the skull, syndesmoses, and gomphoses, none of which fit the structure of the pubic symphysis. *Primary cartilaginous* - A **primary cartilaginous joint**, or **synchondrosis**, involves bones united by **hyaline cartilage**, like the epiphyseal plates of growing bones. - These joints are typically temporary and eventually ossify, or they allow for very restricted movement, unlike the fibrocartilage and slight movement of the pubic symphysis.
Question 74: All of the following muscles have dual nerve supply except which one?
- A. Pectoralis major
- B. Flexor digitorum profundus
- C. Biceps brachii (Correct Answer)
- D. Subscapularis
Explanation: ***Biceps brachii*** - The **biceps brachii** muscle is solely innervated by the **musculocutaneous nerve (C5, C6, C7)**. - This muscle is a prime mover for forearm supination and elbow flexion and does not receive nerve supply from any other nerve. *Subscapularis* - The **subscapularis** muscle has a dual nerve supply from both the **upper and lower subscapular nerves (C5, C6)**. - This dual innervation ensures motor control of the subscapularis, which is an important medial rotator of the humerus. *Pectoralis major* - The **pectoralis major** muscle receives a dual nerve supply from both the **medial and lateral pectoral nerves** [1]. - The **lateral pectoral nerve** primarily supplies the clavicular head, while the **medial pectoral nerve** supplies both the sternocostal head and a portion of the clavicular head [1]. *Flexor digitorum profundus* - The **flexor digitorum profundus** muscle has a dual nerve supply from the **median nerve** (innervating the lateral half for digits 2 and 3) and the **ulnar nerve** (innervating the medial half for digits 4 and 5). - This dual innervation allows for independent or coordinated flexion of the distal phalanges of the fingers.
Question 75: Which of the following statements about the mammary gland is false?
- A. Is a modified sweat gland
- B. Extends from 2nd to 6th rib vertically
- C. Supplied by internal mammary artery
- D. Nipple is supplied by 6th intercostal nerve (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nipple is supplied by 6th intercostal nerve*** - The **nipple and areola** are primarily supplied by branches of the **4th intercostal nerve**. - The 6th intercostal nerve supplies the lower part of the breast and is not the primary innervation for the nipple. *Is a modified sweat gland* - The mammary gland, or breast, is indeed a **modified apocrine sweat gland**. - This embryological origin explains its glandular structure and function of milk production. *Extends from 2nd to 6th rib vertically* - The vertical extent of the mammary gland typically ranges from the **2nd to the 6th rib**. - This anatomical positioning is consistent with its location on the anterior thoracic wall. *Supplied by internal mammary artery* - The **internal mammary artery (internal thoracic artery)** is a major blood supply to the medial aspect of the breast [2]. - Other significant arteries include the lateral thoracic and thoracoacromial arteries for the lateral aspect. The mammary gland is embedded in subcutaneous fat, although fat is absent beneath the nipple and areola [1]. Mature resting breasts lie between the skin and the pectoralis major muscle, supported by Cooper's ligaments [3].
Question 76: Which muscle is not part of the superficial anterior compartment of the forearm?
- A. FDS
- B. FCR
- C. Palmaris longus
- D. Flexor pollicis longus (FPL) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **Flexor pollicis longus (FPL)** - The **FPL** is located in the **deep anterior compartment** of the forearm, differentiating it from the superficial muscles [1]. - Its primary function is **flexion of the thumb's interphalangeal joint**, requiring a deeper anatomical position for mechanical advantage [1]. *FDS* - The **Flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS)** is a key muscle of the superficial anterior compartment, visible just beneath the skin and fascia. - It is responsible for **flexing the middle phalanges** of the medial four digits. *FCR* - The **Flexor carpi radialis (FCR)** is situated in the superficial anterior compartment, running obliquely across the forearm. - It functions in **flexion and abduction of the wrist**. *Palmaris longus* - The **Palmaris longus** is a superficial anterior compartment muscle, though it is absent in a significant portion of the population. - When present, its main action is **flexion of the wrist** and tightening of the palmar aponeurosis.
Question 77: Which muscle receives a muscular branch from the ulnar nerve?
- A. Both FCU and FDP (Correct Answer)
- B. FCU
- C. None of the options
- D. FDP
Explanation: ***Both FCU and FDP*** - The **flexor carpi ulnaris (FCU)** is solely innervated by the **ulnar nerve** in the forearm. - The **flexor digitorum profundus (FDP)** has dual innervation: the **ulnar nerve** supplies the medial half (tendons to ring and little fingers), while the anterior interosseous nerve (branch of median nerve) supplies the lateral half (tendons to index and middle fingers). - Both muscles receive muscular branches from the ulnar nerve, making this the most complete and accurate answer. *FCU* - While the FCU does receive innervation from the ulnar nerve (and only the ulnar nerve), this option is incorrect because the FDP also receives branches from the ulnar nerve. - Selecting only FCU ignores the dual innervation of FDP and is therefore an incomplete answer when "Both FCU and FDP" is available. *FDP* - While the medial half of FDP does receive innervation from the ulnar nerve, this option is incorrect because FCU also receives innervation from the ulnar nerve. - Selecting only FDP ignores the complete innervation of FCU and is therefore an incomplete answer when "Both FCU and FDP" is available. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because both the **flexor carpi ulnaris** and the medial portion of the **flexor digitorum profundus** definitively receive muscular branches from the ulnar nerve. - The ulnar nerve provides motor innervation to these specific forearm muscles before continuing into the hand.
Question 78: What is the largest branch of the brachial plexus?
- A. Ulnar nerve
- B. Radial nerve (Correct Answer)
- C. Axillary nerve
- D. Median nerve
Explanation: ***Radial nerve*** - The **radial nerve** is considered the largest branch of the brachial plexus due to its extensive innervation of numerous muscles in the posterior compartment of the arm and forearm. - It arises from the **posterior cord** of the brachial plexus and innervates all the extensors of the arm and forearm, including the triceps brachii and supinator. *Ulnar nerve* - The ulnar nerve is a significant branch, but it is **smaller** in cross-sectional area and muscular distribution compared to the radial nerve. - It mainly innervates muscles of the **hand** and some forearm flexors. *Median nerve* - The median nerve is a large and clinically important nerve, formed by contributions from both the **lateral and medial cords**, but it is generally *not* considered the largest in terms of overall bulk or number of muscular branches. - It primarily innervates the **flexor muscles of the forearm** and some muscles of the hand (thenar eminence). *Axillary nerve* - The axillary nerve is one of the **smaller** terminal branches of the brachial plexus. - It primarily innervates the **deltoid** and **teres minor muscles**, and a small area of skin over the shoulder.
Question 79: How many ossification centers develop at the distal end of the humerus?
- A. 2
- B. 3 (Correct Answer)
- C. 5
- D. 4
Explanation: ***3*** - The distal end of the humerus develops **three primary ossification centers**: the capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle [1]. - These centers appear sequentially and their ossification pattern is important for assessing **skeletal maturity** in children using the CRITOE mnemonic [1]. - The capitellum appears at 1 year, medial epicondyle at 5 years, and trochlea at 9 years. *2* - This number is too low and only accounts for the **capitellum and medial epicondyle**, missing the trochlea. - While these are the first two to appear, there is an additional primary ossification center (trochlea) that develops later. *5* - This number is incorrect; there are only **three primary ossification centers** at the distal humerus, not five. - This may cause confusion with other joints or by counting secondary ossification centers. *4* - This number is incorrect; while the lateral epicondyle does ossify, it is not consistently counted as a **primary ossification center**. - The standard anatomical teaching recognizes **three primary centers**: capitellum, trochlea, and medial epicondyle.
Dental
1 questionsWhat is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: What is the first permanent tooth to erupt?
- A. First premolar
- B. Second premolar
- C. First molar (Correct Answer)
- D. Second molar
Explanation: ***First molar*** - The **first molars** are typically the first permanent teeth to erupt, usually around **6 years of age**. - They erupt distal to the primary second molars and are not preceded by primary teeth, making them crucial for establishing the **occlusion**. *First premolar* - **First premolars** typically erupt later, between **10 and 11 years of age**, replacing the primary first molars. - Their eruption is part of the **exchange of primary teeth** for permanent successors. *Second premolar* - The **second premolars** erupt even later, usually between **11 and 12 years of age**, replacing the primary second molars. - They are also involved in the **replacement of primary teeth**, not the initial permanent eruption. *Second molar* - **Second molars** erupt much later than the first molars, typically between **11 and 13 years of age**, distal to the first molars. - They are part of the **later stages of permanent dentition development**.