Anatomy
1 questionsWhich is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 611: Which is the earliest secondary ossification center to develop chronologically?
- A. Lower end of femur (Correct Answer)
- B. Upper end of humerus
- C. Lower end of fibula
- D. Upper end of tibia
Explanation: ***Lower end of femur*** - The **distal femoral epiphysis** is typically the first secondary ossification center to appear, often present at birth or shortly before [1]. - Its presence at birth is an indicator of **fetal maturity**, making it a key developmental landmark [1]. *Upper end of humerus* - The **proximal humeral epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6 months of age, significantly later than the distal femur. - This center contributes to the growth of the humeral head and greater tubercle. *Lower end of fibula* - The **distal fibular epiphysis** appears around the first year of life, after both the distal femur and proximal humerus. - It forms part of the ankle joint and contributes to its stability. *Upper end of tibia* - The **proximal tibial epiphysis** typically ossifies around 6-12 months of age, well after the distal femur. - This center is crucial for the growth of the upper tibia and knee joint development.
Forensic Medicine
5 questionsWhich of the following is NOT a sign of somatic death?
What is the minimum quantum of punishment for dowry death according to Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code?
What is meant by blanket consent in a medical context?
What does testamentary capacity refer to?
Which of the following involves the examination of pores on the skin for personal identification?
NEET-PG 2013 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 611: Which of the following is NOT a sign of somatic death?
- A. Cessation of heart
- B. No response to external stimuli
- C. Rigor mortis (Correct Answer)
- D. Cessation of respiration
Explanation: ***Rigor mortis*** - **Rigor mortis** is a post-mortem change, occurring hours after death, characterized by muscle stiffening due to chemical changes after somatic death. - While it's a definitive sign of death, it is a secondary change occurring *after* the cessation of vital functions, not a primary sign of **somatic death** itself. *Cessation of respiration* - The complete and irreversible **cessation of respiration** (breathing) is a primary indicator of somatic death, as oxygen supply to tissues is halted. - This signifies the failure of the **respiratory system** to sustain life functions. *Cessation of heart* - The permanent **cessation of heart** function (cardiac arrest) is a fundamental sign of somatic death, leading to a lack of circulation and nutrient/oxygen delivery. - This marks the breakdown of the **circulatory system**, essential for maintaining life. *No response to external stimuli* - The absence of any **response to external stimuli**, including pain, light, and sound, indicates the complete loss of brain function and consciousness. - This signifies the irreversible failure of the **nervous system**, a key component of somatic death.
Question 612: What is the minimum quantum of punishment for dowry death according to Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code?
- A. 5 years
- B. Life imprisonment
- C. 10 years
- D. 7 years (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***7 years*** - Section 304B of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) specifies that whoever commits **dowry death** shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be less than **seven years**. - This minimum sentence can extend to **imprisonment for life**, depending on the severity and circumstances of the case. *5 years* - This is **incorrect** as per Section 304B of the IPC, which clearly states the minimum punishment for **dowry death** is not less than seven years. - No provision within Section 304B allows for a minimum punishment of only five years. *Life imprisonment* - While life imprisonment is the **maximum** punishment that can be awarded for **dowry death** under Section 304B, it is not the **minimum quantum** of punishment. - The law mandates a lower limit of seven years, implying that life imprisonment is reserved for the most heinous cases. *10 years* - This is not the stipulated **minimum** punishment for **dowry death** under Section 304B of the IPC. - It falls between the minimum (seven years) and the maximum (life imprisonment) but is not the legally defined starting point for sentencing.
Question 613: What is meant by blanket consent in a medical context?
- A. Oral consent
- B. Written consent
- C. Taken at the time of admission for routine medical procedures (Correct Answer)
- D. When the patient comes to doctor for treatment
Explanation: ***Taken at the time of admission for routine medical procedures*** - **Blanket consent** refers to a general consent obtained at the time of admission, covering a range of routine medical procedures and treatments that may be performed during a patient's hospital stay. - It allows healthcare providers to perform common, less risky interventions without seeking specific consent for each minor procedure. - This is a broad, comprehensive consent typically documented in the admission paperwork. *When the patient comes to doctor for treatment* - This describes the initiation of a doctor-patient relationship and **implied consent**, not blanket consent. - Implied consent occurs when a patient seeks treatment, but blanket consent is a more formal, written agreement for various routine procedures. *Oral consent* - **Oral consent** is explicit verbal approval for a specific procedure or treatment. - It is distinct from blanket consent, which is typically written and covers multiple routine procedures rather than a single specific intervention. *Written consent* - **Written consent** is a formal document signed by the patient, typically required for specific, high-risk procedures or research participation. - While blanket consent is often written, not all written consents are blanket consents—written consent for a specific surgery is informed consent for that particular procedure, not blanket consent.
Question 614: What does testamentary capacity refer to?
- A. None of the options
- B. Ability to make a valid will (Correct Answer)
- C. Ability to create a will
- D. Ability to understand legal documents
Explanation: ***Ability to make a valid will*** - **Testamentary capacity** specifically refers to the legal and mental competence required to create a legally binding **last will and testament**. - It ensures that the testator understands the nature of the act, the extent of their property, and the natural objects of their bounty (i.e., those who would reasonably expect to inherit). *Ability to create a will* - While related, this option is too broad; it doesn't emphasize the **legal validity** or the specific cognitive requirements involved in the process. - Simply "creating" a will may involve just writing it down, but it doesn't guarantee the **mental capacity** needed for it to be enforceable. *Ability to understand legal documents* - This is a general cognitive ability that is necessary but insufficient to define **testamentary capacity**. - A person might understand legal documents generally but lack the specific awareness of their assets or beneficiaries required for a valid will at a given time. *None of the options* - This is incorrect because the first option accurately describes **testamentary capacity**.
Question 615: Which of the following involves the examination of pores on the skin for personal identification?
- A. Podography
- B. Dactylography
- C. Poroscopy (Correct Answer)
- D. Cheiloscopy
Explanation: ***Poroscopy*** - **Poroscopy** is the method of personal identification through the examination of the anatomical characteristics of sweat pores. - This technique analyzes the **size, shape, and relative position** of pores found on friction ridge skin, which are unique to each individual. *Podography* - **Podography** involves the study of footprints and foot impressions, primarily for gait analysis or identification based on foot morphology. - It focuses on features like arches, weight distribution, and toe patterns, rather than skin pores. *Dactylography* - **Dactylography** is the scientific study of **fingerprints** and dermatoglyphics for personal identification. - While it deals with friction ridge skin, its primary focus is on the ridge patterns (**loops**, **whorls**, **arches**), not the pores within the ridges. *Cheiloscopy* - **Cheiloscopy** is the forensic study of patterns of **fissures and grooves on the lips** for personal identification. - It analyzes the unique arrangement of **lip furrows**, which are distinct from skin pores.
Microbiology
2 questionsDarting motility which occurs in V.cholerae, also found in -
What is the most common genetic factor associated with increased susceptibility to Neisseria infections?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 611: Darting motility which occurs in V.cholerae, also found in -
- A. Campylobacter jejuni (Correct Answer)
- B. Bacillus anthracis
- C. Shigella
- D. Pneumococcus
Explanation: ***Campylobacter jejuni*** - *Campylobacter jejuni* is well-known for its **rapid, corkscrew-like motility**, often described as **darting motility**, which is a key characteristic for its identification. - This characteristic movement is due to its **polar flagella** and helps the bacterium penetrate the intestinal mucosa. *Shigella* - *Shigella* species are notable for being **non-motile**, a crucial feature distinguishing them from other enterobacteriaceae. - Their lack of flagella and motility prevents them from exhibiting darting or any other form of self-propulsion. *Bacillus anthracis* - *Bacillus anthracis* is typically described as **non-motile** in its vegetative form. - While other *Bacillus* species can be motile, *B. anthracis* lacks the flagella necessary for darting motility. *Pneumococcus* - *Pneumococcus* (Streptococcus pneumoniae) is a **non-motile** bacterium. - It does not possess flagella and therefore cannot exhibit darting or any other type of active movement.
Question 612: What is the most common genetic factor associated with increased susceptibility to Neisseria infections?
- A. HLA-B27
- B. Complement deficiency (Correct Answer)
- C. IgA deficiency
- D. Factor H deficiency
Explanation: ***Complement deficiency*** - Deficiencies in the **terminal complement pathway (C5-C9)**, particularly C5b-C9 (membrane attack complex, MAC), significantly increase susceptibility to disseminated *Neisseria* infections. - The MAC is crucial for lysing Gram-negative bacteria like *Neisseria meningitidis* and *Neisseria gonorrhoeae*, and its absence allows for uncontrolled bacterial proliferation. *Factor H deficiency* - **Factor H** is a regulatory protein of the alternative complement pathway, preventing its overactivation on host cells. - Its deficiency typically leads to conditions like **atypical hemolytic uremic syndrome (aHUS)** and **dense deposit disease**, not primarily increased susceptibility to *Neisseria* infections. *HLA B27* - **HLA-B27** is a human leukocyte antigen strongly associated with a group of autoimmune inflammatory diseases called **spondyloarthropathies**, such as ankylosing spondylitis. - It does not directly impact the immune response to *Neisseria* infections or increase susceptibility to them. *IgA deficiency* - **Selective IgA deficiency** is the most common primary immunodeficiency, characterized by low or absent IgA levels. - Individuals with IgA deficiency are more prone to **recurrent respiratory and gastrointestinal infections**, but not specifically disseminated *Neisseria* infections.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhich vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
NEET-PG 2013 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 611: Which vaccine is contraindicated in pregnancy?
- A. Cholera vaccine
- B. Typhoid vaccine
- C. Meningococcal vaccine
- D. Measles vaccine (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Measles vaccine*** - The measles vaccine is a **live attenuated vaccine**, which carries a theoretical risk of causing infection in the fetus. - Live vaccines are generally **contraindicated during pregnancy** due to this potential risk of congenital infection. *Cholera vaccine* - The cholera vaccine is generally considered **safe during pregnancy** if indicated, especially for travel to endemic areas. - While administration in pregnancy should be based on risk-benefit, it is not consistently contraindicated like live vaccines. *Typhoid vaccine* - Both inactivated and live attenuated typhoid vaccines are available; the **inactivated (killed) vaccine** is generally preferred if vaccination is necessary during pregnancy. - The risks of the disease usually outweigh the vaccine risks, and it is not a universal contraindication. *Meningococcal vaccine* - **Meningococcal vaccines** are generally considered safe and can be administered during pregnancy if there is a significant risk of exposure or during outbreaks. - The benefits of maternal and potential fetal protection from meningococcal disease outweigh theoretical risks.
Surgery
1 questionsWhat is the term used for choking of the respiratory passage by a bolus of food?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 611: What is the term used for choking of the respiratory passage by a bolus of food?
- A. Gagging
- B. Choking due to obstruction
- C. Cafe Coronary (Correct Answer)
- D. Suffocation due to food
Explanation: ***Cafe Coronary*** - This term describes sudden death caused by **obstruction of the airway by food**, often mistaken for a heart attack due to the sudden collapse. - It specifically refers to choking on food that leads to **asphyxiation**, frequently occurring in public eating places. *Gagging* - **Gagging** is a protective reflex that prevents objects from entering the throat or causing choking, but it doesn't describe the choking event itself. - It usually involves involuntary contractions of the pharynx and soft palate, often leading to **retching**. *Choking due to obstruction* - This is a general term for **airway obstruction** by anything, while "cafe coronary" specifically refers to food. - While accurate, it lacks the specific medical terminology used to describe food-induced fatal choking. *Suffocation due to food* - **Suffocation** is a broader term for oxygen deprivation, which can be caused by various means, not exclusively food. - While food can lead to suffocation, the term **"cafe coronary"** is more precise for the scenario of sudden death from food lodged in the respiratory passage.