Internal Medicine
1 questionsMost common site for hydatid cyst
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Most common site for hydatid cyst
- A. Lung
- B. Liver (Correct Answer)
- C. Brain
- D. Kidney
Explanation: ***Liver*** - The **liver** is the most common site for hydatid cysts, accounting for approximately **60-70%** of cases [1]. - It often leads to **biliary obstruction** and liver dysfunction, highlighting its impact on the organ. *Kidney* - Hydatid cysts in the **kidney** are rare and account for a small percentage of cases (around **2-5%**). - Symptoms are often nonspecific, including **flank pain** or hematuria, which are not primary concerns. *Brain* - While the **brain** can be affected, it is not a common site; CNS involvement occurs in only **1-2%** of hydatid disease cases. - Symptoms are related to increased intracranial pressure or focal neurological deficits, not typical for hydatid cysts. *Lung* - The **lung** is another site for hydatid cysts but accounts for about **10-20%** of cases. - Presentation may include **cough** and chest pain, making it less common compared to liver involvement.
Microbiology
6 questionsIn a patient presenting with respiratory symptoms, acute angled septate hyphae are seen in which of the following fungi?
Which of the following statements about viruses is false?
What is the infective form of Trypanosoma brucei?
In malaria, pre-erythrocytic schizogony occurs in -
Which Schistosoma species is primarily associated with eggs being discharged in urine?
Cylindrical helminths are -
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: In a patient presenting with respiratory symptoms, acute angled septate hyphae are seen in which of the following fungi?
- A. Aspergillus (Correct Answer)
- B. Mucor
- C. Penicillium
- D. Candida
Explanation: ***Aspergillus*** - *Aspergillus* species are characterized by their distinctive **acute-angled (dichotomous) septate hyphae** when observed microscopically in tissue sections or clinical samples. - This morphological feature is crucial for differentiating *Aspergillus* infections, such as **aspergillosis**, from other fungal infections. *Mucor* - *Mucor* (along with *Rhizopus* and *Lichtheimia*) belongs to the Zygomycetes class, which are characterized by **broad, non-septate, ribbon-like hyphae** with irregular branching, not acute-angled septate hyphae. - These fungi are associated with **mucormycosis**, often seen in immunocompromised patients, particularly those with diabetes. *Penicillium* - *Penicillium* is a common mold known for producing penicillin and typically appears as **septate hyphae** but is more often recognized by its branching, brush-like conidiophores (penicilli) in culture rather than a distinct acute-angled septate hyphal morphology in clinical samples causing invasive disease. - While it can cause opportunistic infections, its hyphae are less commonly described as having uniquely acute angles compared to *Aspergillus*. *Candida* - *Candida* species are typically observed as **yeast cells (oval budding forms)**, often forming **pseudohyphae** (elongated yeast cells that remain attached) or true hyphae under specific conditions, but not as acute-angled septate hyphae. - *Candida* is a common cause of superficial and invasive candidiasis, and its microscopic appearance is distinct from filamentous fungi.
Question 522: Which of the following statements about viruses is false?
- A. Viruses contain nucleic acid.
- B. Viruses lack mitochondria.
- C. Viruses are capable of independent motility. (Correct Answer)
- D. Viruses lack ribosomes.
Explanation: ***Viruses are capable of independent motility.*** - Viruses are **acellular infectious agents** and lack the cellular machinery required for independent movement or motility. - They rely on host cell processes or environmental factors for their dissemination and entry into cells. *Viruses lack ribosomes.* - Viruses are **obligate intracellular parasites**; they lack ribosomes and other cellular organelles necessary for protein synthesis. - They hijack the host cell's ribosomes and metabolic machinery to replicate their genetic material and produce viral proteins. *Viruses lack mitochondria.* - Viruses lack mitochondria, as they are **not capable of generating their own ATP** through cellular respiration. - They depend on the host cell's energy-generating systems to provide the ATP required for their replication cycle. *Viruses contain nucleic acid.* - All viruses contain a **nucleic acid genome**, which can be either DNA or RNA. - This genetic material carries the instructions for viral replication and is enclosed within a protein coat called a **capsid**.
Question 523: What is the infective form of Trypanosoma brucei?
- A. Trypomastigote (Correct Answer)
- B. Amastigote form
- C. Egg stage
- D. No infective form
Explanation: ***Trypomastigote*** - The **trypomastigote** is the infective form of *Trypanosoma brucei* transmitted to humans by the **tsetse fly** bite. - In the human host, trypomastigotes multiply in the **blood and lymphatic system**, eventually invading the central nervous system. *Amastigote form* - The **amastigote** form is characteristic of *Trypanosoma cruzi* and *Leishmania* species, not *Trypanosoma brucei*. - **Amastigotes** are found intracellularly and lack a flagellum, responsible for replication within host cells for these other parasites. *Egg stage* - *Trypanosoma brucei* is a **protozoan parasite** and does not have an **egg stage** in its life cycle. - Egg stages are typical for helminths, such as **tapeworms** or **flukes**. *No infective form* - This statement is incorrect; **all parasitic organisms** must have an infective stage to be transmitted to their hosts. - The **trypomastigote** is specifically adapted for transmission and survival in the human host and vector.
Question 524: In malaria, pre-erythrocytic schizogony occurs in -
- A. Lung
- B. Liver (Correct Answer)
- C. Spleen
- D. Kidney
Explanation: ***Liver*** - After being introduced by a mosquito bite, **Plasmodium sporozoites** rapidly travel to the liver - In the liver, they invade **hepatocytes** and undergo asexual reproduction, known as **pre-erythrocytic (or hepatic) schizogony**, forming merozoites - This is the exo-erythrocytic cycle that occurs before red blood cell invasion *Lung* - The lungs are not a primary site for **Plasmodium** development or asexual reproduction in the human host - While some parasite components or host immune responses might involve the lungs in severe malaria, it is not where pre-erythrocytic schizogony occurs *Spleen* - The **spleen** is primarily involved in clearing infected red blood cells and acts as a site for immune responses to malaria, but not for initial schizogony - It plays a significant role in the **erythrocytic stage** of malaria by filtering and destroying parasitized red blood cells *Kidney* - The **kidneys** are not involved in the life cycle of the **Plasmodium parasite** during pre-erythrocytic schizogony - While malaria can cause **renal complications** (such as acute kidney injury in severe cases), this is a pathological effect, not a site of parasite development
Question 525: Which Schistosoma species is primarily associated with eggs being discharged in urine?
- A. S. haematobium (Correct Answer)
- B. S. japonicum
- C. S. mansoni
- D. S. mekongi
Explanation: ***S. haematobium*** - *S. haematobium* specifically targets the **urinary bladder plexus**, leading to the discharge of eggs in the **urine**. - Infection with *S. haematobium* is the primary cause of **urinary schistosomiasis** and is associated with complications like **hematuria** and bladder cancer. *S. japonicum (intestinal)* - *S. japonicum* primarily infects the **mesenteric veins of the small intestine** and discharges its eggs in **feces**, not urine. - This species is known for causing severe **intestinal and hepatic schistosomiasis** due to the large number of eggs produced. *S. mansoni (intestinal)* - *S. mansoni* also primarily infects the **mesenteric veins, mainly of the large intestine**, and its eggs are excreted in **feces**. - It is a common cause of **intestinal schistosomiasis**, leading to symptoms such as abdominal pain, diarrhea, and hepatosplenomegaly. *S. mekongi* - *S. mekongi* is another **intestinal schistosome**, closely related to *S. japonicum*, and its eggs are discharged in **feces**. - This species is found in specific regions of Southeast Asia and causes similar symptoms to other intestinal schistosomes.
Question 526: Cylindrical helminths are -
- A. Tapeworms
- B. Flukes
- C. Roundworms (Correct Answer)
- D. Hookworms
Explanation: ***Roundworms*** - **Roundworms**, also known as **nematodes**, are characterized by their **cylindrical body shape**. - Their unsegmented, tapered bodies distinguish them from flatworms like tapeworms and flukes. *Tapeworms* - **Tapeworms**, or **cestodes**, have **flat, ribbon-like bodies** segmented into proglottids. - They are not cylindrical but rather dorsoventrally flattened. *Flukes* - **Flukes**, or **trematodes**, have **flat, leaf-shaped bodies**, which are not cylindrical. - Their morphology includes suckers for attachment and they are not segmented. *Hookworms* - **Hookworms** are a type of **roundworm** (nematode), which means they are cylindrical. However, "Roundworms" is a broader and more accurate classification for the general term "cylindrical helminths." - While hookworms are indeed cylindrical, the option "Roundworms" encompasses all such cylindrical helminths, making it a more general and appropriate answer.
Pharmacology
3 questionsAminophylline inhibits which of the following enzymes?
Which of the following is NOT a beta-2 agonist?
Why do NSAIDs cause gastric ulcers?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Aminophylline inhibits which of the following enzymes?
- A. MAO
- B. Alcohol dehydrogenase
- C. Cytochrome P450
- D. Phosphodiesterase (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Phosphodiesterase*** - **Aminophylline** is a methylxanthine derivative that primarily acts as a **phosphodiesterase (PDE) inhibitor** [1], [2]. - By inhibiting PDE, aminophylline increases intracellular levels of **cAMP** and **cGMP**, leading to **bronchodilation** and other effects [2], [3]. *MAO* - **MAO (monoamine oxidase)** inhibitors are antidepressants that prevent the breakdown of neurotransmitters like serotonin, norepinephrine, and dopamine. - Aminophylline does not significantly inhibit MAO. *Alcohol dehydrogenase* - **Alcohol dehydrogenase** is an enzyme responsible for metabolizing alcohol (ethanol) in the liver. - Aminophylline has no direct inhibitory effect on alcohol dehydrogenase. *Cytochrome P450* - **Cytochrome P450 (CYP450)** enzymes are a group of enzymes primarily involved in the metabolism of drugs and other xenobiotics in the liver [4]. - While aminophylline (and its active metabolite theophylline) can be metabolized by and *affect* certain **CYP450** isoenzymes (e.g., CYP1A2), it does not act as a general inhibitor of the entire CYP450 system; its primary therapeutic action is not through CYP450 inhibition.
Question 522: Which of the following is NOT a beta-2 agonist?
- A. Ketotifen (Correct Answer)
- B. Terbutaline
- C. Salbutamol
- D. Bambuterol
Explanation: ***Ketotifen*** - **Ketotifen** is an **oral anti-allergic drug** that acts as a **mast cell stabilizer** and **H1-antihistamine**, not a beta-2 agonist. - It is used for **prophylactic treatment** of asthma and allergic conditions, working through different mechanisms than bronchodilators. *Terbutaline* - **Terbutaline** is a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)** used for bronchodilation in asthma and COPD [2]. - Available in **oral, inhaled, and injectable forms** for rapid relief of bronchospasm. *Salbutamol* - **Salbutamol** (also known as albuterol) is a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)** and the most widely used rescue inhaler for asthma [1], [2]. - Provides **rapid bronchodilation** by stimulating beta-2 receptors in airway smooth muscles [3]. *Bambuterol* - **Bambuterol** is a **long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)** that is a prodrug of **terbutaline**. - It is slowly converted to the active form in the body, providing **sustained bronchodilation** for maintenance therapy.
Question 523: Why do NSAIDs cause gastric ulcers?
- A. They increase gastric acid secretion
- B. They delay gastric emptying
- C. They inhibit the production of protective mucus
- D. They inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***They inhibit COX-1 and COX-2 enzymes*** - NSAIDs primarily exert their anti-inflammatory effects by inhibiting **cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes**, specifically COX-1 and COX-2. - While COX-2 inhibition is responsible for anti-inflammatory action, **COX-1 inhibition** reduces the production of protective prostaglandins in the gastric mucosa, leading to a loss of mucosal integrity and an increased risk of ulceration. *They inhibit the production of protective mucus* - While NSAIDs do compromise the gastric mucosal barrier, their primary mechanism is not a direct inhibition of mucus production itself. - Instead, the reduced prostaglandin synthesis indirectly affects the quantity and quality of mucus and bicarbonate, which are crucial for mucosal defense. *They increase gastric acid secretion* - NSAIDs do not directly increase gastric acid secretion; in fact, some studies suggest a mild inhibitory effect. - The main problem is the diminished mucosal protection against the normal levels of gastric acid. *They delay gastric emptying* - Delaying gastric emptying is not a primary mechanism by which NSAIDs cause ulcers. - While some medications can affect gastric motility, this is not the key pathway for NSAID-induced gastropathy.