Biochemistry
1 questionsA normal female, whose father is color blind, marries a normal man. What are the chances of their son being color blind?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: A normal female, whose father is color blind, marries a normal man. What are the chances of their son being color blind?
- A. 25%
- B. 50% (Correct Answer)
- C. 75%
- D. No chance
Explanation: ***50%*** - The mother is a **carrier** because her father is colorblind, meaning she has one normal X chromosome and one affected X chromosome. - A son inherits his X chromosome from his mother; there is a **50% chance** that he will inherit the X chromosome carrying the colorblindness gene. *25%* - This percentage is typically associated with **autosomal recessive** inheritance patterns, not X-linked traits like colorblindness. - It would imply a different genetic setup for the parents than described, such as both parents being carriers for an autosomal recessive condition. *75%* - This probability would suggest a more complex genetic scenario or a condition with **incomplete penetrance** or a dominant inheritance pattern, which does not apply to X-linked recessive colorblindness in this context. - It does not align with the mendelian inheritance pattern for X-linked recessive traits when the mother is a carrier and the father is unaffected. *No chance* - This would only be true if the mother was **not a carrier** of the colorblindness gene. - Since her father was colorblind, she must have inherited his affected X chromosome, making her an obligate carrier.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsWhich of the following is not a typical feature of haemolytic uremic syndrome?
What is the primary condition associated with positive anti-dsDNA antibodies?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Which of the following is not a typical feature of haemolytic uremic syndrome?
- A. Splenomegaly (Correct Answer)
- B. Anemia
- C. Renal microthrombi
- D. Hyperkalemia
Explanation: ***Neuro psychiatric disturbances*** - Neuropsychiatric disturbances are not a direct feature of hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS), which primarily affects renal and hematological systems. - HUS is characterized by a triad of **hemolytic anemia**, **thrombocytopenia**, and **acute renal failure**, without specific neuropsychiatric manifestations [2]. *Anaemia* - **Hemolytic anemia** is a key feature of HUS due to red blood cell destruction [1], [2]. - Patients often exhibit signs of **fatigue and pallor**, distinguishing it from other renal syndromes [3]. *Renal microthrombi* - HUS is characterized by the formation of **microthrombi in renal vasculature**, leading to acute kidney injury [1]. - The presence of these microthrombi is fundamental to the pathology of HUS [1]. *Hyperkalemia* - Renal failure in HUS can lead to **hyperkalemia** due to decreased potassium excretion. - It is a common complication associated with the acute renal failure seen in HUS.
Question 422: What is the primary condition associated with positive anti-dsDNA antibodies?
- A. RA
- B. SLE (Correct Answer)
- C. Scleroderma
- D. PAN
Explanation: ***SLE*** - **Anti-dsDNA antibodies** are a highly specific marker for **Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE)** and are included in its diagnostic criteria [1]. - The levels of **anti-dsDNA antibodies** can also correlate with disease activity, particularly in cases of **lupus nephritis** [1]. *RA* - **Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)** is primarily associated with **rheumatoid factor (RF)** and **anti-citrullinated protein antibodies (ACPA)** or **anti-CCP antibodies**. - While ANA (antinuclear antibodies) can be positive in RA, **anti-dsDNA antibodies** are not a characteristic serological marker [1]. *Scleroderma* - **Scleroderma**, or systemic sclerosis, is characterized by specific antibodies such as **anti-Scl-70 (topoisomerase I)**, **anti-centromere antibodies**, and **anti-RNA polymerase III antibodies**, depending on the subtype. - **Anti-dsDNA antibodies** are not typically found in scleroderma and do not play a role in its diagnosis [1]. *PAN* - **Polyarteritis Nodosa (PAN)** is a **necrotizing vasculitis** of medium-sized arteries and is not associated with **anti-dsDNA antibodies**. - PAN is generally considered an **ANCA-negative vasculitis**, and its diagnosis relies more on clinical features, angiography, and biopsy findings.
Microbiology
1 questionsWhich cytokine activates macrophages?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Which cytokine activates macrophages?
- A. Leukotriene B4
- B. IL-8
- C. IFN-γ (Correct Answer)
- D. PAF
Explanation: ***IFN-γ (Interferon-gamma)*** - **IFN-γ is the classic macrophage-activating cytokine**, enhancing phagocytic and antimicrobial functions - Promotes expression of **MHC class I and II molecules**, increasing antigen presentation capacity - Produced mainly by **Th1 cells and NK cells** during cell-mediated immunity - Key cytokine in defense against **intracellular pathogens** (mycobacteria, viruses) *IL-8* - **IL-8 is a chemokine** (cytokine subfamily) primarily involved in **neutrophil chemotaxis** - Recruits neutrophils to sites of infection or inflammation - Does not directly activate macrophages like IFN-γ - Important in acute inflammatory responses *PAF (Platelet-Activating Factor)* - **Not a cytokine** - it is a **phospholipid mediator** - Involved in allergic and inflammatory responses - Functions include **platelet aggregation**, **vasodilation**, and **bronchoconstriction** - While it affects immune responses, it doesn't function as a macrophage-activating cytokine *Leukotriene B4* - **Not a cytokine** - it is a **lipid mediator** (eicosanoid) derived from arachidonic acid - Primarily acts as a **chemoattractant for neutrophils** - Promotes neutrophil and monocyte adhesion and migration to inflammatory sites - Does not directly activate macrophages
Pathology
5 questionsWhich of the following is a primary pleural tumor?
All are growth promoting oncogenes except ?
Which of the following conditions is least associated with tumor suppressor genes?
What is the major fibril protein associated with Primary Amyloidosis?
HLA is located on ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Which of the following is a primary pleural tumor?
- A. Mesothelioma (Correct Answer)
- B. Myxoma
- C. Lipoma
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Mesothelioma*** - Mesothelioma is a **primary malignant tumor** of the pleura [1], commonly associated with **asbestos exposure** [2]. - It typically presents with symptoms like **pleuritic chest pain**, dyspnea, and pleural effusion. *Myxoma* - Myxoma is a **benign tumor** primarily found in the **heart**, particularly in the left atrium, not in the pleura. - It does not arise from pleural tissue and lacks the **malignant characteristics** of mesothelioma. *All* - This option suggests that multiple tumors can be primary pleural tumors, which is incorrect as only mesothelioma is recognized as such. - Other tumors like myxoma and lipoma do not originate in the pleura and thus cannot be classified as primary pleural tumors. *Lipoma* - Lipoma is a **benign tumor** made up of adipose tissue [3] and is typically found in *subcutaneous tissue*, not the pleural cavity. - It does not have the malignant potential or association with pleural disease that characterizes mesothelioma. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Lung, pp. 728-729. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Respiratory Tract Disease, pp. 339-340. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1222.
Question 422: All are growth promoting oncogenes except ?
- A. FGF
- B. PDGF
- C. TGF-α
- D. TGF-β (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***TGF-p*** - **TGF-p (Transforming Growth Factor beta)** is primarily known as a **growth inhibitory** factor rather than a promoting oncogene. - It plays a crucial role in **cell differentiation**, **apoptosis**, and inhibits cell proliferation, counteracting the effects of other oncogenes. *TGF-a* - **TGF-a (Transforming Growth Factor alpha)** is a **growth factor** that stimulates cell proliferation and is involved in various cancers [1][2]. - It binds to the **EGF receptor**, promoting growth and tumor development. *PDGF* - **PDGF (Platelet-Derived Growth Factor)** acts as a potent **mitogen** for connective tissue cells and is involved in wound healing and tumor growth [2][4]. - It plays a central role in promoting cell proliferation and migration, contributing to cancer progression [4]. *FGF* - **FGF (Fibroblast Growth Factor)** promotes mitosis and is crucial in **angiogenesis**, wound healing, and several developmental processes [2]. - Its overexpression is linked to various tumors, making it a significant oncogenic growth promoter [2][3]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. With Illustrations By, pp. 30-31. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, p. 292. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 292-293. [4] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. With Illustrations By, pp. 31-32.
Question 423: Which of the following conditions is least associated with tumor suppressor genes?
- A. Neurofibromatosis
- B. Retinoblastoma
- C. Acute Myeloid Leukemia (AML) (Correct Answer)
- D. Breast cancer
Explanation: ***Multiple endocrine neoplasia*** - This syndrome involves mutations in **proto-oncogenes** like RET rather than tumor suppressor genes. - The condition is mainly characterized by the presence of **multiple endocrine tumors** rather than a failure of tumor suppression. *Retinoblastoma* - Associated with mutations in the **RB1 tumor suppressor gene**, leading to uncontrolled cell proliferation [1] [2]. - Classic example of **loss of function** in a tumor suppressor gene resulting in cancer, specifically in early childhood [1] [2]. *Neurofibromatosis* - Caused by mutations in **NF1** or **NF2 genes**, both of which function as tumor suppressors. - Leads to benign tumors such as **neurofibromas** and other neurogenic tumors due to malfunction in tumor suppression. *Breast cancers* - Often related to mutations in tumor suppressor genes such as **BRCA1** and **BRCA2**, which increase cancer risk [2]. - Implicated in the hereditary form of breast and ovarian cancers due to their roles in DNA repair and cell cycle regulation [2]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 227-228. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Neoplasia, pp. 298-302.
Question 424: What is the major fibril protein associated with Primary Amyloidosis?
- A. Immunoglobulin Light Chain (Correct Answer)
- B. Amyloid Associated protein (AA)
- C. Procalcitonin (PCT)
- D. Transthyretin (TTR)
Explanation: ***AL*** - In Primary Amyloidosis, **AL amyloid** is derived from immunoglobulin light chains produced by **plasma cell dyscrasias** [1]. - This type of amyloidosis is commonly associated with conditions like **multiple myeloma** or monoclonal gammopathy [1]. *Transthyretin* - This protein is associated with **Familial Amyloid Polyneuropathy** and **Senile Systemic Amyloidosis**, not Primary Amyloidosis. - Transthyretin amyloidosis (ATTR) results from **mutations** or **aging**, contributing to different clinical presentations than AL. *AA* - AA amyloidosis is secondary and occurs due to **chronic inflammatory** conditions, such as rheumatoid arthritis or chronic infections. - It is not the main fibril protein in **Primary Amyloidosis**, which is specifically linked to **light chains**. *Procalcitonin* - Procalcitonin is a **biomarker** used primarily for diagnosing bacterial infections, particularly sepsis, and is not involved in amyloidogenesis. - It does not relate to amyloidosis and is not a component of amyloid fibrils. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 266-267.
Question 425: HLA is located on ?
- A. Short arm of chr-6 (Correct Answer)
- B. Long arm of chr-6
- C. Short arm of chr-3
- D. Long arm of chr-3
Explanation: ***Short arm of chr-6*** - The **Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA)** complex, crucial for immune recognition, is located on the **short arm of chromosome 6**. [1] - This region, specifically 6p21.3, contains highly polymorphic genes encoding MHC (Major Histocompatibility Complex) proteins. [2] *Long arm of chr-6* - The **long arm of chromosome 6** contains many genes, but the primary HLA complex is not located here. - Genes on the long arm are involved in various cellular functions, but not central to immune recognition via HLA. *Short arm of chr-3* - Genes on **chromosome 3**, including its short arm, are not associated with the primary HLA complex. - Chromosome 3 is known for genes related to conditions such as von Hippel-Lindau disease. *Long arm of chr-3* - The **long arm of chromosome 3** is not the location for the HLA complex. - This region contains genes involved in diverse cellular processes and disease associations, but not immune recognition via HLA molecules. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. (Basic Pathology) introduces the student to key general principles of pathology, both as a medical science and as a clinical activity with a vital role in patient care. Part 2 (Disease Mechanisms) provides fundamental knowledge about the cellular and molecular processes involved in diseases, providing the rationale for their treatment. Part 3 (Systematic Pathology) deals in detail with specific diseases, with emphasis on the clinically important aspects., pp. 55-56. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 239-240.
Psychiatry
1 questionsWhich of the following is not a characteristic of Fragile X syndrome?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 421: Which of the following is not a characteristic of Fragile X syndrome?
- A. Large nose (Correct Answer)
- B. Large ear
- C. Large testis
- D. Large head
- E. Long narrow face
Explanation: **Large nose** - **Large nose** is generally not considered a characteristic feature of **Fragile X syndrome**. - While individuals with Fragile X syndrome have distinct facial features, a prominent or large nose is not typically among them. *Large head* - **Macrocephaly** (large head circumference) is a recognized physical feature in many individuals with **Fragile X syndrome**. - This characteristic often becomes more apparent in infancy and childhood. *Large ear* - **Large, prominent ears** are a very common and classic physical characteristic observed in individuals with **Fragile X syndrome**. - This feature is often noted during developmental assessments. *Large testis* - **Macro-orchidism** (enlarged testes) is a hallmark physical characteristic of **Fragile X syndrome** in post-pubertal males. - This is a highly specific finding and a key diagnostic pointer for the syndrome in adolescent and adult males. *Long narrow face* - **Long, narrow face** with a prominent forehead and jaw is a typical facial feature of **Fragile X syndrome**. - This characteristic facial appearance is part of the recognizable phenotype of the syndrome.