Anatomy
1 questionsChorda tympani is a branch of which cranial nerve?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: Chorda tympani is a branch of which cranial nerve?
- A. Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)
- B. Facial nerve (CN VII) (Correct Answer)
- C. Trigeminal nerve (CN V)
- D. Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)
Explanation: ***Facial nerve (CN VII)*** - The **chorda tympani** is a branch of the **facial nerve (CN VII)**, carrying special sensory (taste) innervation to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue and preganglionic parasympathetic fibers to the submandibular and sublingual salivary glands. - It arises from the facial nerve within the **temporal bone**, passes through the middle ear, and then joins the lingual nerve. *Trigeminal nerve (CN V)* - The **trigeminal nerve** is primarily responsible for **sensory innervation of the face** and motor innervation of the muscles of mastication. - While the lingual nerve (a branch of the trigeminal nerve) carries the fibers of the chorda tympani, the chorda tympani itself originates from the facial nerve. *Vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII)* - The **vestibulocochlear nerve** is responsible for **hearing** and **balance**. - It does not have any branches that innervate taste buds or salivary glands. *Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX)* - The **glossopharyngeal nerve** innervates the posterior one-third of the tongue for **taste** and general sensation, the parotid gland for parasympathetic secretion, and the stylopharyngeus muscle. - It does not give rise to the chorda tympani.
Biochemistry
2 questionsGlucagon stimulates
Which of the following is not a phospholipid ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: Glucagon stimulates
- A. Gluconeogenesis (Correct Answer)
- B. Glycogenesis
- C. Fatty acid synthesis
- D. Glycolysis
Explanation: ***Gluconeogenesis*** - **Glucagon** is a hormone that primarily acts to raise **blood glucose levels** by stimulating the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources. - This process, **gluconeogenesis**, occurs mainly in the liver and is initiated by glucagon to counteract hypoglycemia. *Glycogenesis* - **Glycogenesis** is the process of synthesizing **glycogen** from glucose and is primarily stimulated by insulin when blood glucose levels are high. - Glucagon's role is to *inhibit* glycogen synthesis and instead promote glycogen breakdown. *Fatty acid synthesis* - **Fatty acid synthesis** is an anabolic process that primarily occurs when there is an excess of energy and glucose, often stimulated by **insulin**. - Glucagon generally has an **inhibitory effect** on fatty acid synthesis, as its main goal is to mobilize energy stores, not create them. *Glycolysis* - **Glycolysis** is the breakdown of glucose to produce energy, and it is stimulated when glucose is abundant and energy is needed. - Glucagon primarily acts to *inhibit* glycolysis in the liver, thereby conserving glucose for use by other tissues and promoting its release into the bloodstream.
Question 352: Which of the following is not a phospholipid ?
- A. Lecithin
- B. Plasmalogen
- C. Cardiolipin
- D. Ganglioside (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ganglioside*** - Gangliosides are a type of **glycosphingolipid** because their structure includes a ceramide (a sphingoid base linked to a fatty acid) and a carbohydrate portion with one or more **sialic acid** residues, but no phosphate group. - They are primarily found in **nerve cell membranes** and are crucial for cell-cell recognition and signaling, differentiating them from phospholipids which contain a phosphate group. *Lecithin* - Lecithin, specifically **phosphatidylcholine**, is a common phospholipid characterized by a **phosphate group** and a **choline head group** attached to a diacylglycerol backbone. - It plays vital roles in cell membrane structure and function and is an important emulsifier. *Plasmalogen* - Plasmalogens are a class of phospholipids characterized by a **vinyl ether linkage** at the *sn*-1 position of the glycerol backbone, instead of the typical ester linkage found in other phospholipids. - They retain the defining **phosphate group** that classifies them as phospholipids. *Cardiolipin* - Cardiolipin is a unique phospholipid composed of **two phosphatidic acid moieties** connected by a glycerol molecule, resulting in four fatty acid chains and two phosphate groups. - It is predominantly found in the **inner mitochondrial membrane**, essential for mitochondrial function.
Internal Medicine
3 questionsAnemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland will result in which hormone deficiency ?
Which of the following statements about Gilbert syndrome is false?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
- A. Hemolysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- D. Aplastic anemia
Explanation: ***Hemolysis*** - Reticulocytosis indicates a compensatory response to anemia, often occurring in hemolytic processes where the **bone marrow increases red blood cell production** in response to red blood cell destruction. - Conditions like **sickle cell disease** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** lead to hemolysis, further confirming increased reticulocyte count. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Typically presents with a **low reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow does not have sufficient iron to produce new red blood cells. - This condition is characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic** red blood cells due to inadequate iron stores. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Often results in a **macrocytic anemia** with a variable reticulocyte count; however, reticulocytosis is generally not seen initially. - This deficiency affects DNA synthesis, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and the presence of **megaloblastic changes**. *Aplastic anemia* - Characterized by a **decrease in all types of blood cells** (pancytopenia) and typically has a **low reticulocyte count** due to bone marrow failure. - There is insufficient production of red blood cells, hence **reticulocytosis is not observed**.
Question 352: Chronic atrophy of adrenal gland will result in which hormone deficiency ?
- A. Aldosterone
- B. Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)
- C. Epinephrine
- D. Cortisol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cortisol*** - **Chronic atrophy of the adrenal gland**, often seen in conditions like **Addison's disease** [1], primarily leads to a deficiency of **glucocorticoids**, the main one being cortisol [2]. - **Cortisol** is produced in the **zona fasciculata** of the adrenal cortex, which is highly susceptible to damage in atrophic conditions [2]. *Aldosterone* - While aldosterone is produced in the adrenal cortex (**zona glomerulosa**), its deficiency is more characteristic of primary adrenal insufficiency affecting the entire cortex, not necessarily solely from 'chronic atrophy' which can have varied pathophysiology [2]. - In some autoimmune forms of adrenal atrophy (Addison's disease), **aldosterone deficiency** can occur, but **cortisol deficiency** is a more universal and defining feature [1][3]. *Dehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)* - **DHEA** is an adrenal androgen produced in the **zona reticularis** of the adrenal cortex [2]. Its deficiency is also common in adrenal atrophy. - However, **cortisol deficiency** generally has more immediate and life-threatening clinical consequences compared to DHEA deficiency. *Epinephrine* - Epinephrine is produced by the **adrenal medulla**, which is distinct from the adrenal cortex where atrophy typically occurs in conditions causing hormone deficiencies. - Therefore, **adrenal gland atrophy** primarily affecting the cortex would not lead to **epinephrine deficiency** as the medulla usually remains functional.
Question 353: Which of the following statements about Gilbert syndrome is false?
- A. Normal liver histology
- B. Autosomal dominant
- C. Elevated bilirubin levels are present
- D. Causes cirrhosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Causes cirrhosis*** - **Gilbert syndrome** is a benign condition characterized by intermittent unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and does **not lead to cirrhosis** [1]. - Cirrhosis is a severe form of **liver scarring** resulting from chronic damage, which is not a feature of Gilbert syndrome. *Normal liver histology* - The liver structure and function in individuals with Gilbert syndrome are typically **normal**, distinguishing it from other liver disorders [2]. - Histological examination of liver biopsies usually reveals no abnormalities, reflecting the **benign nature** of the condition. *Autosomal dominant* - Gilbert syndrome is inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, not autosomal dominant [2]. - It results from a reduction in the activity of the **UGT1A1 enzyme**, which is responsible for bilirubin conjugation [1], [2]. *Elevated bilirubin levels are present* - Individuals with Gilbert syndrome experience **intermittent unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia**, meaning their indirect bilirubin levels are elevated [3]. - This elevation is usually mild and can be exacerbated by stress, fasting, or illness, but it is typically **harmless** [1], [2].
Physiology
4 questionsFever increases water loss by how much for each degree Celsius increase in body temperature?
Which of the following statements about breathing is incorrect?
Deoxygenated blood is not seen in which of the following?
Maximum voluntary ventilation is:
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 351: Fever increases water loss by how much for each degree Celsius increase in body temperature?
- A. 100 ml/day
- B. 200 ml/day (Correct Answer)
- C. 400 ml/day
- D. 800 ml/day
Explanation: ***200 ml/day*** - For every 1-degree Celsius (or 1.8-degree Fahrenheit) increase in body temperature, there is an approximate **200 ml increase in insensible water loss** per day due to increased metabolism and sweating. - This value highlights the importance of **adequate fluid replacement** in febrile patients to prevent dehydration. *100 ml/day* - This value is **insufficient** to account for the increased insensible fluid losses associated with fever. - Using this estimate could lead to **underestimation of fluid requirements** and potential dehydration in febrile patients. *400 ml/day* - This value is **higher than the typical estimated increase** in water loss per degree Celsius of fever. - While extreme fever might cause higher losses, 200 ml/day is the standard clinical approximation for a 1-degree rise. *800 ml/day* - This value represents a **significant overestimation** of the fluid loss per degree Celsius increase in fever. - Such a high estimate would generally be seen only in very severe conditions or with much larger temperature increases.
Question 352: Which of the following statements about breathing is incorrect?
- A. Inspiration is an active process
- B. Normal breathing occurs when transpulmonary pressure is 5-8 cm H2O (Correct Answer)
- C. Expiration during quiet breathing is passive
- D. Compliance is influenced by multiple factors including surfactant.
Explanation: ***Normal breathing occurs when transpulmonary pressure is 5-8 cm H2O*** - This statement is **incorrect** because it misrepresents transpulmonary pressure during normal breathing. - Normal **transpulmonary pressure** during quiet breathing typically ranges from approximately **3-6 cm H2O** during inspiration, with an average of about **5 cm H2O** at functional residual capacity. - The range "5-8 cm H2O" is too high for normal quiet breathing. While transpulmonary pressure can reach 8 cm H2O during deeper inspiration, stating this as the range for "normal breathing" is inaccurate. - Transpulmonary pressure is the difference between alveolar pressure and pleural pressure (P_L = P_alv - P_pl), which drives lung inflation. *Expiration during quiet breathing is passive* - During quiet breathing, **expiration is a passive process** driven by the **elastic recoil of the lungs** and chest wall. - No active muscular contraction is required for air to leave the lungs during unforced expiration. *Inspiration is an active process* - **Inspiration is an active process** requiring muscular contraction, primarily of the **diaphragm and external intercostal muscles**. - These muscles contract to increase the thoracic volume, which decreases intrapleural and alveolar pressures, drawing air into the lungs. *Compliance is influenced by multiple factors including surfactant* - **Lung compliance**, a measure of the lung's distensibility, is significantly influenced by **surfactant**. - Surfactant reduces **surface tension** in the alveoli, preventing their collapse and increasing compliance.
Question 353: Deoxygenated blood is not seen in which of the following?
- A. Pulmonary artery
- B. Umbilical artery
- C. Pulmonary vein (Correct Answer)
- D. Right atrium
Explanation: ***Pulmonary vein*** - The pulmonary veins carry **oxygenated blood** from the lungs back to the left atrium of the heart. - Their primary function is to transport blood that has undergone **gas exchange** in the lungs, making it rich in oxygen. *Pulmonary artery* - The pulmonary artery carries **deoxygenated blood** from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs. - This is an exception to the general rule that arteries carry oxygenated blood, as its purpose is to deliver blood for **oxygenation**. *Right atrium* - The right atrium receives **deoxygenated blood** from the systemic circulation via the superior and inferior vena cava. - It acts as a collecting chamber for blood that has supplied oxygen to the body's tissues before it is pumped to the lungs. *Umbilical artery* - The umbilical arteries carry **deoxygenated blood** and waste products from the fetus to the placenta. - In fetal circulation, these arteries are responsible for removing metabolic wastes and carbon dioxide from the fetal circulation.
Question 354: Maximum voluntary ventilation is:
- A. 25 L/min
- B. 50 L/min
- C. 100 L/min
- D. 150 L/min (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***150 L/min*** - The **Maximum Voluntary Ventilation (MVV)** represents the largest volume of air that can be breathed in and out using maximal effort over a 10-15 second period. - While it varies among individuals, a typical average value for a healthy adult is approximately **150-170 L/min**. *25 L/min* - This value is significantly lower than the typical MVV; 25 L/min is closer to a normal **resting minute ventilation** (tidal volume multiplied by respiratory rate). - Resting minute ventilation reflects the volume of air exchanged at rest, not the maximum capacity. *50 L/min* - This value is still considerably lower than the average MVV and does not represent the maximum capacity of the respiratory system. - It might be seen in individuals with **severe pulmonary impairment** or at a very high resting metabolic rate. *100 L/min* - While higher than resting values, 100 L/min is generally below the average maximum voluntary ventilation for a healthy adult. - It could represent a MVV in individuals with **mild to moderate respiratory compromise** or less effort during the test.