Anatomy
5 questionsInterosseous membrane of forearm is pierced by?
Which of the following statements about the great saphenous vein is true?
The blood supply to femoral head is mostly by?
Main blood supply to the head and neck of femur comes from
Which chamber of the heart forms the posterior surface?
NEET-PG 2013 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Interosseous membrane of forearm is pierced by?
- A. Brachial artery
- B. Anterior interosseous artery (Correct Answer)
- C. Posterior interosseous artery
- D. Ulnar recurrent artery
Explanation: ***Anterior interosseous artery*** - The **anterior interosseous artery** pierces the **interosseous membrane** in the **distal forearm** (approximately 5 cm above the wrist) to anastomose with the **posterior interosseous artery** and contribute to the **palmar carpal arch**. - This artery arises from the **common interosseous artery**, a branch of the **ulnar artery**. - This is the **classically taught structure** that pierces the interosseous membrane and is the standard answer in examination contexts. *Brachial artery* - The **brachial artery** is the main artery of the arm and terminates in the **cubital fossa** by dividing into the **radial** and **ulnar arteries**. - It does not pierce the **interosseous membrane** of the forearm as it is located in the arm, not the forearm. *Posterior interosseous artery* - The **posterior interosseous artery** arises from the **common interosseous artery** and passes **posteriorly between the oblique cord and the upper border of the interosseous membrane** to enter the posterior compartment of the forearm. - While it may pierce the membrane distally to anastomose anteriorly, the **anterior interosseous artery** is the structure **classically described** as piercing the membrane in standard anatomical teaching and examination contexts. *Ulnar recurrent artery* - The **ulnar recurrent arteries** (anterior and posterior branches) arise from the **ulnar artery** near the **cubital fossa** and ascend to participate in the **anastomosis around the elbow joint**. - These arteries do not pierce the **interosseous membrane** of the forearm.
Question 312: Which of the following statements about the great saphenous vein is true?
- A. It begins at lateral end of dorsal venous arch
- B. It runs anterior to medial malleolus (Correct Answer)
- C. Terminates into popliteal vein
- D. It is accompanied by the sural nerve
Explanation: **It runs anterior to medial malleolus** - The **great saphenous vein** originates from the medial end of the **dorsal venous arch** of the foot and ascends anterior to the **medial malleolus** [1]. - This anatomical relationship makes it accessible for various clinical procedures, such as **venous cutdown** for rapid intravenous access [1]. *It begins at lateral end of dorsal venous arch* - The **great saphenous vein** actually begins at the **medial end** of the dorsal venous arch, not the lateral end [1]. - The **small saphenous vein** arises from the lateral end of the dorsal venous arch [1]. *It is accompanied by the sural nerve* - The **sural nerve** typically accompanies the **small saphenous vein**, not the great saphenous vein, in the posterior leg [1]. - The **saphenous nerve**, a branch of the femoral nerve, accompanies the great saphenous vein throughout its course in the leg. *Terminates into popliteal vein* - The **great saphenous vein** normally terminates by draining into the **femoral vein** in the femoral triangle, not the popliteal vein [1]. - The **small saphenous vein** is the one that typically drains into the popliteal vein [1].
Question 313: The blood supply to femoral head is mostly by?
- A. Lateral epiphyseal artery
- B. Medial epiphyseal artery
- C. Artery of ligamentum teres
- D. Profunda femoris (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Profunda femoris*** - The profunda femoris artery (deep femoral artery) gives rise to the **medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries**, which are the primary blood supply to the femoral head in adults - Specifically, the **medial circumflex femoral artery** and its branches (lateral epiphyseal arteries and retinacular arteries) form an extracapsular arterial ring and penetrate the joint capsule to supply the femoral head - The profunda femoris is thus the main parent vessel responsible for femoral head blood supply *Lateral epiphyseal artery* - This artery is a branch of the **medial circumflex femoral artery**, which originates from the profunda femoris - While it directly supplies the femoral head and is the dominant terminal branch, it represents a more specific component of the arterial network rather than the main source vessel - It provides blood to the lateral and superior portions of the femoral head *Medial epiphyseal artery* - This artery is also a branch of the circumflex femoral arteries, which originate from the profunda femoris - It contributes to the blood supply but is less dominant than the lateral epiphyseal branches - Similar to lateral epiphyseal artery, it is part of the retinacular arterial system *Artery of ligamentum teres* - The **artery of the ligamentum teres** (foveal artery) is an inconsistent and often small vessel, typically a branch of the **obturator artery** or medial circumflex femoral artery - While it contributes to blood supply especially in children, its contribution is usually minor in adults and often insufficient to sustain the femoral head alone - It enters through the fovea capitis and its contribution diminishes with age
Question 314: Main blood supply to the head and neck of femur comes from
- A. Lateral circumflex femoral artery
- B. Medial circumflex femoral artery (Correct Answer)
- C. Artery of ligamentum teres
- D. Popliteal artery
Explanation: ***Medial circumflex femoral artery*** - The **medial circumflex femoral artery** is the primary arterial supply to the **head and neck of the femur**, particularly via its **retinacular branches**. - These branches ascend along the femoral neck within the joint capsule, supplying most of the femoral head. *Lateral circumflex femoral artery* - The **lateral circumflex femoral artery** primarily supplies the muscles of the **anterior compartment of the thigh**, including the quadriceps femoris. - While it contributes to anastomoses around the hip, its direct supply to the femoral head and neck is less significant than the medial circumflex. *Artery of ligamentum teres* - The **artery of the ligamentum teres** (foveal artery) supplies a small, variable portion of the **femoral head**, mainly in children. - Its contribution to the overall blood supply to the adult femoral head and neck is often negligible or absent. *Popliteal artery* - The **popliteal artery** is located in the **popliteal fossa** behind the knee joint and is the continuation of the femoral artery. - Its branches supply the structures around the knee and lower leg, not the femoral head and neck.
Question 315: Which chamber of the heart forms the posterior surface?
- A. Right Atrium (RA)
- B. Left Atrium (LA) (Correct Answer)
- C. Left Ventricle (LV)
- D. Right Ventricle (RV)
Explanation: ***Left Atrium (LA)*** - The **left atrium** forms the posterior surface of the heart, lying in front of the esophagus and thoracic aorta [1]. - Its posterior position makes it susceptible to enlargement, which can compress the **esophagus** and cause dysphagia [1]. *Right Atrium (RA)* - The **right atrium** primarily forms the right border of the heart and receives deoxygenated blood from the systemic circulation. - It lies anteriorly and to the right, behind the sternum and costal cartilages. *Left Ventricle (LV)* - The **left ventricle** forms the apex of the heart and part of the left border. - It is positioned *inferiorly* and *anteriorly*, contributing significantly to the *diaphragmatic surface* of the heart. *Right Ventricle (RV)* - The **right ventricle** forms the majority of the anterior surface of the heart, directly behind the sternum. - It also contributes to the *inferior surface* of the heart, resting on the diaphragm.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsAnemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Anemia with reticulocytosis is seen in -
- A. Hemolysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Iron deficiency anemia
- C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
- D. Aplastic anemia
Explanation: ***Hemolysis*** - Reticulocytosis indicates a compensatory response to anemia, often occurring in hemolytic processes where the **bone marrow increases red blood cell production** in response to red blood cell destruction. - Conditions like **sickle cell disease** or **autoimmune hemolytic anemia** lead to hemolysis, further confirming increased reticulocyte count. *Iron deficiency anemia* - Typically presents with a **low reticulocyte count** as the bone marrow does not have sufficient iron to produce new red blood cells. - This condition is characterized by **microcytic, hypochromic** red blood cells due to inadequate iron stores. *Vitamin B12 deficiency* - Often results in a **macrocytic anemia** with a variable reticulocyte count; however, reticulocytosis is generally not seen initially. - This deficiency affects DNA synthesis, leading to ineffective erythropoiesis and the presence of **megaloblastic changes**. *Aplastic anemia* - Characterized by a **decrease in all types of blood cells** (pancytopenia) and typically has a **low reticulocyte count** due to bone marrow failure. - There is insufficient production of red blood cells, hence **reticulocytosis is not observed**.
Pathology
1 questionsWhat is the typical bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: What is the typical bone marrow finding in myelofibrosis?
- A. Megaloblastic cells
- B. Microcytic cells
- C. Thrombocytosis
- D. Dry tap (hypocellular) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dry tap (hypocellular)*** - In myelofibrosis, the bone marrow is often **hypocellular** due to fibrosis [1][2], leading to a **dry tap** during aspiration. - The presence of **reticulin** and collagen deposition replaces normal hematopoietic cells [2], resulting in ineffective hematopoiesis. *Thrombocytosis* - Myelofibrosis typically leads to **thrombocytopenia**, not thrombocytosis, due to ineffective megakaryopoiesis and splenic sequestration. - Though elevated platelets can occur, they are generally a **secondary response** to the disease and not a hallmark finding. *Megaloblastic cells* - Megaloblastic changes are associated with **vitamin B12** or **folate deficiencies**, which do not occur in myelofibrosis. - In myelofibrosis, the predominant issue is **marrow fibrosis** [1][2], which does not lead to megaloblastosis. *Microcytic cells* - Microcytic cells are commonly linked to **iron deficiency anemia**, not myelofibrosis. - Myelofibrosis typically results in **variable red cell morphology** [1], but microcytic anemia is not a primary characteristic. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 628-629. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Blood And Bone Marrow Disease, pp. 615-616.
Pharmacology
3 questionsWhich of the following is a second-generation beta blocker?
Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker?
Which beta-1 antagonist is used in congestive cardiac failure?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 311: Which of the following is a second-generation beta blocker?
- A. Timolol
- B. Atenolol (Correct Answer)
- C. Nadolol
- D. Propranolol
Explanation: ***Atenolol*** - **Atenolol** is a **second-generation beta blocker** characterized by its **cardioselectivity**, meaning it primarily blocks beta-1 receptors in the heart. - This selectively reduces heart rate and contractility with fewer respiratory side effects compared to non-selective agents. *Propranolol* - **Propranolol** is a **first-generation non-selective beta blocker**, meaning it blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 adrenergic receptors. - Its non-selective action can cause significant bronchoconstriction, making it less suitable for patients with respiratory conditions. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is also a **first-generation non-selective beta blocker** commonly used in ophthalmic preparations for glaucoma. - It blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors and does not possess the cardioselectivity of second-generation agents. *Nadolol* - **Nadolol** is another **first-generation non-selective beta blocker** with a long duration of action due to its extensive plasma half-life. - Like other first-generation agents, it lacks cardioselectivity and blocks both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors.
Question 312: Which of the following is not a cardioselective beta blocker?
- A. Nebivolol
- B. Atenolol
- C. Betaxolol
- D. Oxprenolol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Oxprenolol*** - **Oxprenolol** is a non-selective beta-blocker with **intrinsic sympathomimetic activity (ISA)**, meaning it blocks both β1 and β2 receptors and partially stimulates them. - Its non-selective action means it affects both the heart (β1) and other organs like the lungs (β2), making it less suitable for patients with respiratory conditions. *Nebivolol* - **Nebivolol** is a highly cardioselective beta-blocker that primarily blocks **β1 receptors** and also has **vasodilatory properties** due to nitric oxide release. - Its high selectivity translates to fewer β2-mediated side effects, such as bronchoconstriction. *Atenolol* - **Atenolol** is a **cardioselective beta-blocker** that predominantly blocks **β1 receptors** at therapeutic doses. - This selectivity makes it a common choice for cardiovascular conditions, reducing the risk of bronchospasm compared to non-selective agents. *Betaxolol* - **Betaxolol** is a **cardioselective beta-blocker** primarily used for the treatment of hypertension and glaucoma. - It selectively blocks **β1 adrenergic receptors**, minimizing effects on the lungs compared to non-selective beta-blockers.
Question 313: Which beta-1 antagonist is used in congestive cardiac failure?
- A. Atenolol
- B. Metoprolol (Correct Answer)
- C. Esmolol
- D. Bisoprolol
Explanation: ***Metoprolol*** - **Metoprolol succinate** (extended-release formulation) is a selective **beta-1 antagonist** proven to reduce mortality and hospitalizations in **chronic heart failure with reduced ejection fraction (HFrEF)**. - It works by **reducing heart rate, myocardial oxygen demand**, and preventing adverse cardiac remodeling through inhibition of chronic sympathetic activation. - Along with **bisoprolol and carvedilol**, it is one of the **three beta-blockers with proven mortality benefit** in heart failure trials. *Atenolol* - While atenolol is a selective beta-1 antagonist, it **lacks evidence for mortality benefit** in heart failure. - It has **high hydrophilicity** and renal elimination, leading to less favorable pharmacokinetics compared to metoprolol. - More commonly used for **hypertension and angina** rather than heart failure management. *Esmolol* - **Esmolol** is an ultra-short-acting selective beta-1 antagonist used for **acute control of heart rate** in perioperative and critical care settings. - Its **very short half-life (9 minutes)** makes it unsuitable for chronic management of heart failure. - Administered only **intravenously** and requires continuous infusion. *Bisoprolol* - While **bisoprolol is also approved** for heart failure and has proven mortality benefit (CIBIS-II trial), this question likely expects **metoprolol** as the answer given the historical context. - Both bisoprolol and metoprolol are acceptable answers, but **metoprolol** has been more widely studied and is more commonly cited in Indian medical exams. - Bisoprolol has **greater beta-1 selectivity** than metoprolol but similar clinical outcomes in heart failure.