Dental
1 questionsTurn-buckle cast is used for ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1241: Turn-buckle cast is used for ?
- A. Fracture of the humerus
- B. Management of spinal deformities (Correct Answer)
- C. Fracture of the femur
- D. Cervical spine immobilization
Explanation: ***Management of spinal deformities*** - A **turn-buckle cast** is specifically designed to apply gradual, corrective forces for **spinal deformities** like scoliosis or kyphosis. - It allows for incremental adjustments to the cast to achieve progressive stretching and correction of the spinal curve. *Fracture of the humerus* - **Humerus fractures** are typically managed with hanging arm casts, coaptation splints, or surgical fixation, depending on the fracture type and location. - A turn-buckle cast is not suitable for immobilizing or reducing a **humeral fracture**. *Fracture of the femur* - **Femur fractures** in adults usually require surgical intervention, such as intramedullary nailing, due to the high biomechanical stress on the bone. - For conservative management in children, traction or spica casts might be used, but not a **turn-buckle cast**. *Cervical spine immobilization* - **Cervical spine immobilization** is typically achieved using rigid cervical collars, halo vests, or specialized orthoses designed to restrict head and neck movement. - A turn-buckle cast is too bulky and not anatomically suitable for effective **cervical spine stabilization**.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1241: Which type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?
- A. Psoriatic arthritis
- B. Neuropathic arthritis (Correct Answer)
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Reactive arthritis
Explanation: ***Neuropathic arthritis*** - **Neuropathic arthritis** (**Charcot joint**) is characterized by progressive joint destruction due to loss of proprioception and pain sensation, leading to severe bone and joint damage without a typical **periosteal reaction**. - The absence of normal protective reflexes results in repetitive microtrauma, often leading to bone resorption and fragmentation rather than new bone formation (periosteal reaction). *Psoriatic arthritis* - **Psoriatic arthritis** often presents with distinctive **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses and along the shafts of small bones (e.g., "pencil-in-cup" deformities and fluffy periostitis) [1]. - These periosteal changes are a hallmark of the inflammatory process affecting bone and connective tissues in psoriatic arthritis. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** primarily involves the synovium, leading to erosions rather than prominent periosteal reactions in early stages [1]. - While periostitis can occur in chronic, destructive rheumatoid arthritis, it is not a primary or characteristic finding compared to other inflammatory arthritides. *Reactive arthritis* - **Reactive arthritis** frequently causes **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses (where tendons and ligaments attach to bone) and along the shafts of long bones, often described as "fluffy" periostitis [1]. - These new bone formations are a key radiological feature distinguishing it from other types of inflammatory arthritis.
Orthopaedics
5 questionsWhich condition can lead to the formation of loose bodies in the joint?
Most common site of osteochondritis dissecans?
Windswept deformity is seen in which condition?
What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?
Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1241: Which condition can lead to the formation of loose bodies in the joint?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Ankylosing spondylitis
- C. Osteoarthritis (Correct Answer)
- D. Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation: ***Osteoarthritis*** - In **osteoarthritis**, the **degenerative process** of cartilage can lead to fragments breaking off and floating within the joint space, forming **loose bodies**. - These loose bodies, also known as **joint mice**, can cause mechanical symptoms like locking, clicking, or catching in the joint. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** is an **inflammatory autoimmune disease** primarily affecting the synovium. - While it can cause joint damage, it typically does not lead to the formation of cartilaginous or bony loose bodies. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - **Ankylosing spondylitis** is a **chronic inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the spine and sacroiliac joints. - Its hallmark is new bone formation and fusion of vertebrae, not the formation of loose bodies within the joint. *Systemic lupus erythematosus* - **Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)** is a systemic autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs, including joints. - While it can cause **non-erosive arthritis**, it does not typically result in the formation of loose bodies.
Question 1242: Most common site of osteochondritis dissecans?
- A. Lateral part of the medial femoral condyle (Correct Answer)
- B. Medial part of the medial femoral condyle
- C. Lateral part of the lateral femoral condyle
- D. Medial part of the lateral femoral condyle
Explanation: ***Lateral part of the medial femoral condyle*** - This is the **most common site** for osteochondritis dissecans in the knee, accounting for about 85% of cases. - The condition involves a localized area of **osteonecrosis and subchondral bone separation** from the epiphysis, typically afflicting this specific load-bearing region. *Medial part of the medial femoral condyle* - This location is **less common** for osteochondritis dissecans compared to the lateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle. - While osteochondral lesions can occur on any part of the condyle, the specific biomechanical stresses make the lateral part more susceptible. *Lateral part of the lateral femoral condyle* - Osteochondritis dissecans is **rarely found** in this location. - The lateral femoral condyle is generally less involved in osteochondritis dissecans of the knee. *Medial part of the lateral femoral condyle* - This site is also an **uncommon location** for osteochondritis dissecans. - The disease has a strong predilection for the medial femoral condyle, particularly its lateral aspect.
Question 1243: Windswept deformity is seen in which condition?
- A. Hyperparathyroidism
- B. Scurvy
- C. Rheumatoid Arthritis
- D. Rickets (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Rickets*** - **Windswept deformity** is characterized by bilateral knee deformities where one knee is in **valgus** and the other is in **varus**. - This condition is caused by a deficiency in **vitamin D**, **calcium**, or **phosphate**, leading to improper bone mineralization and subsequent bone deformities. *Rheumatoid Arthritis* - Rheumatoid arthritis is a **chronic autoimmune inflammatory disease** primarily affecting the synovial joints. - While it can cause joint deformities, they typically involve symmetric joint swelling, pain, and stiffness, with characteristic deformities like **ulnar deviation** or **swan-neck deformities**, rather than windswept deformity. *Hyperparathyroidism* - Hyperparathyroidism leads to excessive production of **parathyroid hormone**, which causes increased bone resorption and elevated blood calcium levels. - It can result in bone fragility, **osteitis fibrosa cystica**, and kidney stones, but it does not cause specific windswept deformity. *Scurvy* - Scurvy results from a severe deficiency of **vitamin C**, which is essential for collagen synthesis. - It presents with symptoms like bleeding gums, poor wound healing, and perifollicular hemorrhages, but it does not typically cause windswept deformity of the knees.
Question 1244: What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?
- A. 5 kg
- B. 10 kg
- C. 20 kg
- D. 15 kg (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***15 kg*** - While the specific weight can vary based on the bone and patient, 10-15 kg is generally the **maximum recommended weight for skeletal traction** in adults to avoid complications. - Applying too much weight risks **damage to the bone, soft tissues, and nerves**, as well as potential pin site infections and neurovascular compromise. *5 kg* - This weight is typically more appropriate for **skin traction**, where the pulling force is applied externally to the skin, limiting the amount of weight that can be safely used without causing skin damage. - In skeletal traction, 5 kg is often used for **initial alignment or very tenuous fractures**, but it is generally insufficient for significant reduction or long-term stabilization. *10 kg* - 10 kg is a common starting point or moderate weight used in skeletal traction, particularly for **femur or tibia fractures**. - While often effective, it is not consistently the maximum safe weight, as some situations may allow or require slightly more weight up to 15 kg for optimal reduction. *20 kg* - Applying 20 kg of weight in skeletal traction is generally considered **excessive and dangerous** in most adult applications. - This high amount of weight significantly increases the risk of **pin loosening, osteomyelitis, neurovascular injury, and avascular necrosis**, especially in areas like the cervical spine or tibia.
Question 1245: Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?
- A. Intraarticular fracture
- B. Septic arthritis (Correct Answer)
- C. Fracture lateral condyle humerus
- D. Fracture neck femur
Explanation: ***Septic arthritis*** - This is an **orthopedic emergency** due to the rapid destruction of cartilage and bone if not treated promptly. - It requires urgent **surgical washout** and intravenous antibiotics to prevent irreversible joint damage and systemic infection. *Intraarticular fracture* - While requiring careful management to optimize joint function, an **intraarticular fracture** is typically not an immediate emergency unless there's associated neurovascular compromise or compartment syndrome. - Surgical intervention can often be planned within a certain timeframe (days) rather than hours. *Fracture lateral condyle humerus* - This fracture in children is significant due to potential for non-union or avascular necrosis, but it is not considered an immediate **life- or limb-threatening emergency**. - Management usually involves **reduction and fixation** but does not carry the same degree of urgency as active joint infection. *Fracture neck femur* - A fractured neck of femur requires surgical intervention to prevent complications like **avascular necrosis** and optimize mobility, particularly in elderly patients. - While serious, it primarily presents a risk of long-term disability and complications, not an immediate destructive process like septic arthritis.
Psychiatry
2 questionsAstasia-abasia is associated with which of the following conditions?
A student unable to deliver speech before an audience is suffering from?
NEET-PG 2013 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1241: Astasia-abasia is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder
- B. Depressive Disorder
- C. Bipolar Mood Disorder
- D. Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder*** - **Astasia-abasia**, which refers to an inability to stand (astasia) and walk (abasia) despite normal motor function when examined in bed, is a classical presentation of **Functional Neurological Symptom Disorder** (formerly conversion disorder). - This disorder involves neurological symptoms that are incompatible with recognized medical conditions and often linked to **psychological stressors**. - The gait disturbance is bizarre and inconsistent with any known neurological pattern. *Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder* - Characterized by re-experiencing a **traumatic event**, avoidance behaviors, negative alterations in cognitions and mood, and hyperarousal. - While it can manifest with physical symptoms, **astasia-abasia** is not a primary or characteristic feature. *Depressive Disorder* - Primarily involves persistent **sadness**, loss of interest or pleasure, changes in appetite or sleep, and feelings of worthlessness or guilt. - Although physical symptoms like fatigue and psychomotor retardation can occur, **astasia-abasia** is not a typical presentation. *Bipolar Mood Disorder* - Distinguished by episodes of both **mania** (or hypomania) and **depression**. - Symptoms are predominantly mood-related, including extreme shifts in energy, activity levels, and concentration, not specific neurological deficits like astasia-abasia.
Question 1242: A student unable to deliver speech before an audience is suffering from?
- A. Social anxiety disorder (Correct Answer)
- B. Fear of open spaces
- C. Fear of enclosed spaces
- D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Explanation: ***Social anxiety disorder*** - This condition involves an intense, persistent fear of social situations, particularly those where one might be scrutinized or judged by others. - Public speaking is a classic scenario that can trigger significant distress and avoidance in individuals with **social anxiety disorder**. *Fear of open spaces* - This symptom describes **agoraphobia**, which is an anxiety disorder characterized by fear and avoidance of situations or places that might cause panic, helplessness, or embarrassment, often due to a perceived inability to escape. - While it can sometimes involve fear of public gatherings, its core is about escape/safety from open, unfamiliar, or overwhelming spaces, not specifically about performance. *Fear of enclosed spaces* - This refers to **claustrophobia**, which is an anxiety disorder characterized by an irrational fear of confined spaces. - It does not involve the fear of speaking or performance before an audience. *Obsessive Compulsive Disorder* - **OCD** is characterized by recurrent and persistent thoughts (obsessions) and/or repetitive behaviors or mental acts (compulsions) performed to reduce anxiety. - It does not typically manifest as an inability to deliver a speech before an audience unless the obsessions or compulsions directly interfere with such an activity, which is not the primary mechanism of this symptom.
Radiology
1 questionsWhich condition is associated with the pencil in cup deformity?
NEET-PG 2013 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1241: Which condition is associated with the pencil in cup deformity?
- A. Rheumatoid arthritis
- B. Ankylosing spondylitis
- C. Avascular necrosis
- D. Psoriatic arthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriatic arthritis*** - The **pencil-in-cup deformity** is a classic radiographic finding in advanced psoriatic arthritis, occurring due to **periarticular bone erosion** and phalangeal telescoping. - This specific deformity is characterized by the proximal phalanx eroding and fitting into the expanded distal phalanx, resembling a "pencil in a cup." *Rheumatoid arthritis* - While rheumatoid arthritis causes significant joint destruction, it typically presents with **periarticular erosions** and **joint space narrowing**, but not the characteristic pencil-in-cup morphology. - Common deformities include **swan-neck** and **boutonnière** deformities, and ulnar deviation. *Ankylosing spondylitis* - This condition primarily affects the **axial skeleton**, leading to spinal fusion and **sacroiliitis**. - Peripheral joint involvement is less common and typically does not result in the pencil-in-cup deformity; instead, it can cause **syndesmophytes**. *Avascular necrosis* - **Avascular necrosis** (AVN) involves the death of bone tissue due to lack of blood supply, primarily affecting the femoral head or other major joints. - Radiographic findings include **subchondral collapse**, crescent sign, and eventual joint destruction, but not the specific deformities seen in inflammatory arthritis like pencil-in-cup.