Dental
1 questionsTurn-buckle cast is used for ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1181: Turn-buckle cast is used for ?
- A. Fracture of the humerus
- B. Management of spinal deformities (Correct Answer)
- C. Fracture of the femur
- D. Cervical spine immobilization
Explanation: ***Management of spinal deformities*** - A **turn-buckle cast** is specifically designed to apply gradual, corrective forces for **spinal deformities** like scoliosis or kyphosis. - It allows for incremental adjustments to the cast to achieve progressive stretching and correction of the spinal curve. *Fracture of the humerus* - **Humerus fractures** are typically managed with hanging arm casts, coaptation splints, or surgical fixation, depending on the fracture type and location. - A turn-buckle cast is not suitable for immobilizing or reducing a **humeral fracture**. *Fracture of the femur* - **Femur fractures** in adults usually require surgical intervention, such as intramedullary nailing, due to the high biomechanical stress on the bone. - For conservative management in children, traction or spica casts might be used, but not a **turn-buckle cast**. *Cervical spine immobilization* - **Cervical spine immobilization** is typically achieved using rigid cervical collars, halo vests, or specialized orthoses designed to restrict head and neck movement. - A turn-buckle cast is too bulky and not anatomically suitable for effective **cervical spine stabilization**.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsAll are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1181: All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:
- A. Prostate
- B. Lung
- C. Brain (Correct Answer)
- D. Thyroid
Explanation: ***Brain*** - The **brain** is not a common site for primary bone metastasis, as bone metastases typically originate from organs like the **breast**, **lung**, and **prostate**. - While brain tumors can metastasize to bone, the reverse (primary bone cancer) occurring here is rare. *Breast* - Breast cancer is one of the **most prevalent sources** of bone metastases, commonly affecting the spine and pelvis. - Symptoms often include **bone pain** and potential fractures due to metastasis. *Brain* - Similar to , while brain tumors can metastasize, **primary cancers** do not commonly originate in the bone. - The **metastatic spread** to the brain from other primary sites is common, but not the other way around. *Breast* - Again, breast cancer commonly leads to **bone metastasis**, accounting for a significant percentage of these cases. - It is important to identify busy metastasis to **manage** symptoms and improve patient outcomes.
Orthopaedics
6 questionsWhat is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?
Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?
Most common site of myositis ossificans ?
What is another name for ischial bursitis?
Bunion is commonly seen at ?
Which of the following fractures is least likely associated with vascular injury?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1181: What is the generally recommended maximum weight for skeletal traction in adult patients?
- A. 5 kg
- B. 10 kg
- C. 20 kg
- D. 15 kg (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***15 kg*** - While the specific weight can vary based on the bone and patient, 10-15 kg is generally the **maximum recommended weight for skeletal traction** in adults to avoid complications. - Applying too much weight risks **damage to the bone, soft tissues, and nerves**, as well as potential pin site infections and neurovascular compromise. *5 kg* - This weight is typically more appropriate for **skin traction**, where the pulling force is applied externally to the skin, limiting the amount of weight that can be safely used without causing skin damage. - In skeletal traction, 5 kg is often used for **initial alignment or very tenuous fractures**, but it is generally insufficient for significant reduction or long-term stabilization. *10 kg* - 10 kg is a common starting point or moderate weight used in skeletal traction, particularly for **femur or tibia fractures**. - While often effective, it is not consistently the maximum safe weight, as some situations may allow or require slightly more weight up to 15 kg for optimal reduction. *20 kg* - Applying 20 kg of weight in skeletal traction is generally considered **excessive and dangerous** in most adult applications. - This high amount of weight significantly increases the risk of **pin loosening, osteomyelitis, neurovascular injury, and avascular necrosis**, especially in areas like the cervical spine or tibia.
Question 1182: Which of the following is an orthopedic emergency?
- A. Intraarticular fracture
- B. Septic arthritis (Correct Answer)
- C. Fracture lateral condyle humerus
- D. Fracture neck femur
Explanation: ***Septic arthritis*** - This is an **orthopedic emergency** due to the rapid destruction of cartilage and bone if not treated promptly. - It requires urgent **surgical washout** and intravenous antibiotics to prevent irreversible joint damage and systemic infection. *Intraarticular fracture* - While requiring careful management to optimize joint function, an **intraarticular fracture** is typically not an immediate emergency unless there's associated neurovascular compromise or compartment syndrome. - Surgical intervention can often be planned within a certain timeframe (days) rather than hours. *Fracture lateral condyle humerus* - This fracture in children is significant due to potential for non-union or avascular necrosis, but it is not considered an immediate **life- or limb-threatening emergency**. - Management usually involves **reduction and fixation** but does not carry the same degree of urgency as active joint infection. *Fracture neck femur* - A fractured neck of femur requires surgical intervention to prevent complications like **avascular necrosis** and optimize mobility, particularly in elderly patients. - While serious, it primarily presents a risk of long-term disability and complications, not an immediate destructive process like septic arthritis.
Question 1183: Most common site of myositis ossificans ?
- A. Shoulder
- B. Wrist
- C. Quadriceps/Thigh (Correct Answer)
- D. Elbow
Explanation: ***Quadriceps/Thigh*** - The **quadriceps and thigh** muscles are frequently affected due to their common involvement in sports injuries and trauma. - This region is prone to **hematoma formation** after contusions, which can predispose to ectopic bone formation. *Shoulder* - While the shoulder can be affected by myositis ossificans, it is **less common** than the quadriceps. - Traumatic myositis ossificans in the shoulder typically involves the **deltoid muscle**. *Wrist* - Myositis ossificans of the **wrist is rare** and usually occurs after severe trauma or crush injuries. - The small muscle mass and limited direct trauma to the wrist muscles make it an **unlikely primary site**. *Elbow* - Myositis ossificans can occur around the elbow, particularly in the **brachialis muscle**, often following dislocations or fractures. - However, the elbow is still **less commonly affected overall** compared to the large muscle groups of the thigh.
Question 1184: What is another name for ischial bursitis?
- A. Weaver's bottom (Correct Answer)
- B. Trochanteric bursitis
- C. Prepatellar bursitis
- D. Olecranon bursitis
Explanation: ***Weaver's bottom*** - This is a common **colloquial term** for ischial bursitis, describing the condition that can arise from prolonged sitting. - The **ischial bursa** lies between the ischial tuberosity and the gluteus maximus, which can become inflamed from pressure. *Prepatellar bursitis* - This refers to inflammation of the bursa located over the **kneecap**. - It is often called **"housemaid's knee"** due to its association with prolonged kneeling. *Trochanteric bursitis* - This is inflammation of the bursa located over the **greater trochanter of the femur**, on the outer side of the hip. - It causes pain in the **lateral hip region**, often radiating down the thigh. *Olecranon bursitis* - This involves inflammation of the bursa located at the **tip of the elbow** (olecranon process). - It is sometimes called **"student's elbow"** or **"miner's elbow"** due to repetitive trauma or pressure.
Question 1185: Bunion is commonly seen at ?
- A. Great toe MTP joint (Correct Answer)
- B. Medial malleolus
- C. Lateral Malleolus
- D. Shin of tibia
Explanation: ***Great toe MTP joint*** - A bunion, or **hallux valgus**, is a bump that forms on the outside of the **first metatarsophalangeal (MTP) joint** of the big toe. - This common foot deformity involves structural changes that result in the big toe pointing towards the smaller toes. *Medial malleolus* - The medial malleolus is the bony prominence on the **inside of the ankle**. - It is part of the tibia and forms the inner wall of the ankle joint, not typically where bunions occur. *Lateral Malleolus* - The lateral malleolus is the bony protrusion on the **outside of the ankle**. - It is part of the fibula and forms the outer wall of the ankle joint, unrelated to bunion formation. *Shin of tibia* - The shin refers to the **anterior crest of the tibia**, the large bone in the lower leg. - This area is prone to conditions like shin splints or fractures, but not bunions.
Question 1186: Which of the following fractures is least likely associated with vascular injury?
- A. Fracture supracondylar femur
- B. Fracture supracondylar humerus
- C. Fracture shaft of femur
- D. Fracture shaft of humerus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Fracture shaft of humerus*** - While any fracture can theoretically cause vascular injury, **mid-shaft humeral fractures** are less commonly associated with significant **vascular compromise** compared to those around major joints or near critical neurovascular bundles. - The **brachial artery** and its branches are often sufficiently mobile and protected by surrounding musculature in the mid-shaft region, reducing the incidence of direct laceration or entrapment. *Fracture supracondylar femur* - **Supracondylar femur fractures** are in close proximity to the **femoral artery** and its branches in the popliteal fossa. - Displacement of these fractures can easily **lacerate or compress** these vital vessels, leading to high rates of vascular injury. *Fracture supracondylar humerus* - **Supracondylar humerus fractures** in children are notoriously associated with **brachial artery injury** due to the artery's close proximity and fixated position over the joint. - The acute angulation and displacement often seen in these fractures put the artery at significant risk of **kinking, compression, or transection**. *Fracture shaft of femur* - **Femoral shaft fractures** can be associated with significant vascular injury, particularly from **large displaced fragments** or high-energy trauma. - The **superficial femoral artery** and its perforating branches can be torn, leading to substantial hemorrhage or arterial compromise.
Pathology
1 questionsWhat is the most common malignant tumor of the skeletal system?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1181: What is the most common malignant tumor of the skeletal system?
- A. Chondrosarcoma
- B. Multiple myeloma
- C. Osteosarcoma
- D. Metastasis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Metastasis*** - **Skeletal metastasis** is overwhelmingly the most common malignant tumor involving bone, as many primary cancers (e.g., breast, prostate, lung) frequently spread to bone [1]. - While not originating in the bone, these metastatic deposits are malignant neoplasms within the skeletal system, making them the most prevalent. *Multiple myeloma* - This is a **primary malignancy of plasma cells** that arises in the bone marrow, causing destructive bone lesions. - It is the most common **primary malignant bone tumor** in adults, but still less common than metastatic disease. *Osteosarcoma* - This is the most common **primary malignant bone tumor** in **children and adolescents**, primarily affecting long bones [2]. - While a significant primary bone cancer, its incidence is lower than that of metastatic bone disease across all age groups [1]. *Chondrosarcoma* - This is a malignant tumor of **cartilage-forming cells** and is the second most common primary bone cancer in adults, after multiple myeloma [3]. - It is much less common than metastatic disease and osteosarcoma [1], [3]. **References:** [1] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Osteoarticular And Connective Tissue Disease, pp. 671-672. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1202. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Bones, Joints, and Soft Tissue Tumors, p. 1204.
Surgery
1 questionsWhich type of fracture is most likely to cause exsanguinating blood loss?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1181: Which type of fracture is most likely to cause exsanguinating blood loss?
- A. Closed tibial fracture
- B. Open femoral fracture (Correct Answer)
- C. Open humeral fracture
- D. Closed humeral fracture
Explanation: ***Open femoral fracture*** - An **open femoral fracture** involves both a break in the **femur** (the largest bone in the body, which houses significant marrow and has an extensive blood supply) and a break in the skin, allowing for direct external bleeding. - The **femur** can bleed up to **1-2 liters internally** even in a closed fracture, and an **open fracture** compounds this risk with direct external blood loss, leading to rapid exsanguination. *Closed tibial fracture* - A **closed tibial fracture** does not involve a break in the skin, so external bleeding is not a primary concern. - While there can be internal bleeding, the **tibia** is smaller than the femur and generally causes less significant blood loss (typically **250-500 mL**) compared to a femoral fracture. *Open humeral fracture* - An **open humeral fracture** involves exposure of the bone to the outside, but the **humerus** is a smaller bone with less marrow volume and blood supply compared to the femur. - While bleeding can be significant, especially if major vessels like the **brachial artery** are damaged, the overall potential for rapid, life-threatening **exsanguination** is less than with a femoral fracture. *Closed humeral fracture* - A **closed humeral fracture** does not involve a break in the skin, limiting blood loss to internal bleeding within the arm. - The **humerus** is a relatively smaller bone and, in a closed fracture, the surrounding tissues can tamponade some of the bleeding, making exsanguinating hemorrhage unlikely.