Dental
2 questionsWhat is the treatment of choice for a post-operative abscess?
In Veau classification for cleft lip and palate, Type IV denotes
NEET-PG 2013 - Dental NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: What is the treatment of choice for a post-operative abscess?
- A. Hydration
- B. IV antibiotics
- C. Image guided aspiration (Correct Answer)
- D. Reexploration
Explanation: ***Image-guided aspiration*** - This is often the **first-line treatment** for a post-operative abscess, especially if it is well-localized. - It involves **draining the pus** under imaging guidance, relieving pressure and removing the infectious material. *Hydration* - While important for overall patient management, especially in cases of infection or sepsis, **hydration alone does not treat an abscess**. - It is a supportive measure but does not address the **localized collection of pus**. *IV antibiotics* - Antibiotics are typically indicated as an **adjunct to drainage**, especially in cases of systemic infection or cellulitis. - However, **antibiotics alone are often insufficient** to resolve an abscess as they have difficulty penetrating the necrotic core and thick capsule. *Reexploration* - **Surgical reexploration** is a more invasive option usually reserved for abscesses that are **large, multiloculated, not amenable to percutaneous drainage**, or when initial drainage attempts fail. - It carries greater risks and is not the initial treatment of choice for every post-operative abscess.
Question 1062: In Veau classification for cleft lip and palate, Type IV denotes
- A. Bilateral cleft palate only
- B. Bilateral cleft lip only
- C. No cleft
- D. Bilateral cleft lip and palate (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Bilateral cleft lip and palate*** - Veau Type IV specifically classifies cases involving a **bilateral complete cleft of both the lip and the palate**. - This is the most severe form in the Veau classification system, indicating involvement of both sides of the primary and secondary palates. *Bilateral cleft palate only* - The Veau classification primarily focuses on cleft lip and palate, not isolated palatal clefts without lip involvement. - An isolated bilateral cleft palate is not directly classified as Type IV; rather, Veau Type IV includes lip involvement. *Bilateral cleft lip only* - Veau Type IV encompasses both lip and palatal involvement, not just a bilateral cleft lip alone. - A bilateral cleft lip without a concomitant cleft palate would be classified differently within the system (e.g., Veau Type III if affecting the entire primary palate bilaterally without complete secondary palate involvement). *No cleft* - The Veau classification system is designed to categorize the presence and extent of cleft deformities, not the absence of a cleft. - This option is contrary to the purpose of a classification system for anomalies.
ENT
1 questionsMoure's sign (lateral displacement of the soft palate) is associated with which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: Moure's sign (lateral displacement of the soft palate) is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Laryngeal carcinoma
- B. Peritonsillar abscess (Correct Answer)
- C. Chronic tonsillitis
- D. Acute epiglottitis
Explanation: ***Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy)*** - **Moure's sign** refers to the **lateral displacement of the soft palate** toward the affected side, which is a classic finding in **peritonsillar abscess**. - This occurs due to the **accumulation of pus** between the tonsillar capsule and the superior constrictor muscle, causing the soft palate to bulge and deviate. - Other features include **severe throat pain**, trismus, drooling, and a "hot potato" voice. *Laryngeal carcinoma* - **Laryngeal carcinoma** presents with **hoarseness**, dysphagia, and potential airway obstruction. - While laryngeal examination may show mass lesions or vocal cord fixation, **soft palate displacement is not a feature** of laryngeal malignancy. *Chronic tonsillitis* - **Chronic tonsillitis** involves recurrent throat infections with tonsillar hypertrophy and cryptic debris. - It does **not cause acute soft palate displacement** like peritonsillar abscess does. *Acute epiglottitis* - **Acute epiglottitis** is characterized by **supraglottic inflammation** causing severe dysphagia, drooling, and stridor. - The pathology is at the **epiglottis level**, not the peritonsillar space, so **Moure's sign is absent**.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsAcute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: Acute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:
- A. Increased local temperature
- B. Erythematous scrotum
- C. Decreased blood flow (Correct Answer)
- D. Raised TLC
Explanation: ***Decreased blood flow*** - **Acute orchitis** is an inflammatory process that typically leads to increased blood flow (hyperemia) to the affected testis due to the inflammatory response. - Decreased blood flow would be more characteristic of conditions like **testicular torsion**, which is an emergent condition causing ischemia. *Increased local temperature* - **Inflammation** is characterized by the classic signs of rubor (redness) and calor (heat), leading to an **increased local temperature** in the affected area. - This is a common finding in acute orchitis due to the inflammatory response. *Erythematous scrotum* - The inflammatory process in orchitis causes **vasodilation** and increased vascular permeability, leading to redness and swelling of the overlying scrotal skin. - An **erythematous scrotum** is a typical clinical sign of acute orchitis. *Raised TLC* - **TLC (Total Leukocyte Count)** is often elevated in cases of acute infection or inflammation, such as orchitis. - A **raised TLC** indicates a systemic inflammatory response to the infection.
Pathology
1 questionsRenal stones which are laminated and irregular in outline are
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: Renal stones which are laminated and irregular in outline are
- A. Uric acid
- B. Calcium oxalate (Correct Answer)
- C. Struvite
- D. Cystine
Explanation: ***Calcium oxalate*** - **Calcium oxalate stones** are the most common type of kidney stones and characteristically present with a **laminated** (layered) and **irregular, spiculated outline** due to their crystalline structure - They are typically **radio-opaque** on X-rays due to their calcium content - The irregular outline distinguishes them from other stone types *Uric acid* - **Uric acid stones** are often **smooth**, hard, and **yellowish-brown** in appearance - They are **radio-lucent** on standard X-rays and are associated with conditions like gout or acidic urine - Their smooth surface contrasts with the irregular calcium oxalate stones *Struvite* - **Struvite stones** (magnesium ammonium phosphate) are strongly associated with **urinary tract infections** (UTIs) and can form **staghorn calculi**, filling the renal pelvis - They tend to be **friable** and have a **smooth or glistening** surface, often growing quite large - Associated with urease-producing bacteria *Cystine* - **Cystine stones** are caused by a genetic disorder affecting amino acid transport and generally appear **smooth, waxy, and hexagonal crystal-shaped** - They are typically **moderately radio-opaque** but less dense than calcium stones - The smooth, waxy appearance differs from the irregular calcium oxalate stones
Pediatrics
1 questionsMost common age for intussusception is
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: Most common age for intussusception is
- A. 0 - 6 months
- B. 6 months - 3 years (Correct Answer)
- C. 3 - 5 years
- D. > 5 years
Explanation: ***6 months - 3 years*** - Intussusception commonly occurs in infants and young children, with the peak incidence between **6 months and 3 years** of age. - This age range coincides with changes in feeding practices and increased exposure to viral infections, which can sometimes precede intussusception. - The **typical age** is 5-9 months, with most cases occurring before 2 years. *0 - 6 months* - While intussusception can occur in this age group, it is **less common** than in slightly older infants. - Intussusception in very young infants may have different underlying causes, such as a **pathologic lead point**. *3 - 5 years* - Intussusception is **less frequent** in this age group compared to infants and toddlers. - When it does occur, there is a higher likelihood of an **identifiable lead point**, such as a Meckel's diverticulum or polyp. *> 5 years* - Intussusception is **rare** in children over the age of 5 years. - In older children and adults, it is almost always associated with a **pathological lead point**, such as a tumor or postoperative adhesions.
Surgery
4 questionsAll are true about carcinoma penis except which of the following?
Primary treatment for localized malignant melanoma is
A 40-year-old male with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is found to have Barrett's esophagus with low-grade dysplasia on endoscopy. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?
Best approach for emergency thoracotomy in acute thoracic trauma is
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1061: All are true about carcinoma penis except which of the following?
- A. Leads to erosion of artery
- B. Spreads by blood borne metastasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Slowly progressive
- D. Most common type is squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation: ***Spreads by blood borne metastasis*** - Carcinoma penis typically spreads initially via the **lymphatic system** to inguinal lymph nodes. - **Hematogenous spread** is a late event and generally rare, with the most common sites being the lung, liver, and bone. *Leads to erosion of artery* - Local advancement of penile carcinoma can lead to **erosion of penile arteries**, which can cause significant morbidity including bleeding and functional compromise. - This local tissue destruction is a characteristic feature of advanced, uncontrolled penile cancer. *Slowly progressive* - Carcinoma penis is generally a **slowly progressive** malignancy, allowing for early detection and intervention if patients seek medical attention promptly. - The slow growth rate contributes to the fact that many patients present with localized or regionally advanced disease before distant metastases occur. *Most common type is squamous cell carcinoma* - Approximately 95% of penile cancers are **squamous cell carcinomas (SCCs)**, arising from the epithelial cells of the glans or foreskin. - Other rare types include melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and sarcomas, but SCC vastly predominates.
Question 1062: Primary treatment for localized malignant melanoma is
- A. Wide excision (Correct Answer)
- B. Radiotherapy
- C. Excision
- D. Chemotherapy
Explanation: ***Wide excision*** - This is the **primary treatment** for localized malignant melanoma, aiming to completely remove the tumor along with a surrounding margin of healthy tissue to reduce recurrence risk. - The excisional margin width depends on the **Breslow depth** (tumor thickness). *Radiotherapy* - Not the primary treatment for localized melanoma, as melanoma cells are often **radioresistant**. - It may be used as **adjuvant therapy** for local control in cases of positive margins or nodal involvement, or for palliative care in metastatic disease. *Excision* - While excision is part of the treatment, the term **"wide excision"** specifically implies removing a sufficient margin of healthy tissue around the tumor. - Simple excision without appropriate margins is generally inadequate for malignant melanoma and carries a **high risk of local recurrence**. *Chemotherapy* - It is generally **not the first-line treatment** for localized melanoma due to limited efficacy and significant side effects. - Chemotherapy agents are typically reserved for **advanced or metastatic melanoma** and are often replaced by targeted therapies or immunotherapy in modern practice.
Question 1063: A 40-year-old male with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is found to have Barrett's esophagus with low-grade dysplasia on endoscopy. What is the most appropriate initial pharmacological treatment for this condition?
- A. Fundoplication
- B. Esophageal resection
- C. PPI (Correct Answer)
- D. Diet modification
Explanation: ***PPI*** - In patients with **GERD** and **low-grade dysplasia**, high-dose **proton pump inhibitors (PPIs)** are the initial treatment of choice to suppress acid reflux. - Continuous acid suppression can help in the regression of dysplasia and prevent its progression to higher grades. *Fundoplication* - **Fundoplication** is a surgical procedure to treat severe GERD, but it is not the primary initial treatment for low-grade dysplasia. - It might be considered if medical therapy with PPIs fails or if there are significant anatomical defects. *Esophageal resection* - **Esophageal resection** is a major surgical procedure typically reserved for **high-grade dysplasia** or **esophageal adenocarcinoma**. - It is an overly aggressive and unnecessary intervention for initial management of low-grade dysplasia. *Diet modification* - **Diet modification** is an important adjunctive therapy for GERD symptoms and overall gastric health. - However, it is generally insufficient as a standalone initial treatment for documented **low-grade dysplasia** without concurrent pharmacotherapy.
Question 1064: Best approach for emergency thoracotomy in acute thoracic trauma is
- A. Midline sternotomy
- B. Parasternal thoracotomy
- C. Anterolateral thoracotomy (Correct Answer)
- D. Posterolateral thoracotomy
Explanation: ***Anterolateral thoracotomy*** - Provides **rapid access** to the chest cavity for emergent situations, such as **cardiac tamponade** or **massive hemorrhage**, which are common in thoracic trauma. - Allows assessment and management of injuries to the **heart, great vessels, and lungs** with minimal repositioning in a critically ill patient. *Midline sternotomy* - Primarily used for **cardiac surgery**, offering excellent exposure to the mediastinum but is less ideal for general thoracic trauma with potential lateral injuries. - Takes **longer to perform** than an anterolateral approach and may not be suitable in an emergent, unstable trauma setting. *Parasternal thoracotomy* - Offers more limited access compared to other approaches, typically used for specific, localized procedures near the sternum. - Does not provide the **broad exposure** needed to manage the diverse and potentially widespread injuries seen in severe thoracic trauma. *Posterolateral thoracotomy* - Provides excellent exposure to the **posterior mediastinum, spine, and descending aorta**, but requires the patient to be in the lateral decubitus position. - Repositioning a severely injured trauma patient for this approach is often **impractical and time-consuming**, making it unsuitable for initial resuscitation.