ENT
1 questionsMoure's sign (lateral displacement of the soft palate) is associated with which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2013 - ENT NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Moure's sign (lateral displacement of the soft palate) is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Laryngeal carcinoma
- B. Peritonsillar abscess (Correct Answer)
- C. Chronic tonsillitis
- D. Acute epiglottitis
Explanation: ***Peritonsillar abscess (Quinsy)*** - **Moure's sign** refers to the **lateral displacement of the soft palate** toward the affected side, which is a classic finding in **peritonsillar abscess**. - This occurs due to the **accumulation of pus** between the tonsillar capsule and the superior constrictor muscle, causing the soft palate to bulge and deviate. - Other features include **severe throat pain**, trismus, drooling, and a "hot potato" voice. *Laryngeal carcinoma* - **Laryngeal carcinoma** presents with **hoarseness**, dysphagia, and potential airway obstruction. - While laryngeal examination may show mass lesions or vocal cord fixation, **soft palate displacement is not a feature** of laryngeal malignancy. *Chronic tonsillitis* - **Chronic tonsillitis** involves recurrent throat infections with tonsillar hypertrophy and cryptic debris. - It does **not cause acute soft palate displacement** like peritonsillar abscess does. *Acute epiglottitis* - **Acute epiglottitis** is characterized by **supraglottic inflammation** causing severe dysphagia, drooling, and stridor. - The pathology is at the **epiglottis level**, not the peritonsillar space, so **Moure's sign is absent**.
Internal Medicine
3 questionsAcute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:
Which of the following is not a recognized complication of chronic pancreatitis?
Subclavian steal syndrome is
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Acute orchitis is characterized by all of the following except:
- A. Increased local temperature
- B. Erythematous scrotum
- C. Decreased blood flow (Correct Answer)
- D. Raised TLC
Explanation: ***Decreased blood flow*** - **Acute orchitis** is an inflammatory process that typically leads to increased blood flow (hyperemia) to the affected testis due to the inflammatory response. - Decreased blood flow would be more characteristic of conditions like **testicular torsion**, which is an emergent condition causing ischemia. *Increased local temperature* - **Inflammation** is characterized by the classic signs of rubor (redness) and calor (heat), leading to an **increased local temperature** in the affected area. - This is a common finding in acute orchitis due to the inflammatory response. *Erythematous scrotum* - The inflammatory process in orchitis causes **vasodilation** and increased vascular permeability, leading to redness and swelling of the overlying scrotal skin. - An **erythematous scrotum** is a typical clinical sign of acute orchitis. *Raised TLC* - **TLC (Total Leukocyte Count)** is often elevated in cases of acute infection or inflammation, such as orchitis. - A **raised TLC** indicates a systemic inflammatory response to the infection.
Question 1012: Which of the following is not a recognized complication of chronic pancreatitis?
- A. Renal artery thrombosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Pancreatic pseudocyst
- C. Splenic vein thrombosis
- D. Pancreatic fistula
Explanation: ***Renal artery thrombosis*** - **Renal artery thrombosis** is generally associated with conditions like **atherosclerosis**, atrial fibrillation, or vasculitis, not directly with chronic pancreatitis. - While chronic pancreatitis can lead to systemic complications, direct renal arterial clotting is an atypical and **uncommon sequela**. *Pancreatic pseudocyst* - **Pancreatic pseudocysts** are common complications of chronic pancreatitis, occurring when fluid collections around the pancreas become walled off by fibrous tissue [1]. - They can cause pain, obstruction, and even rupture if left untreated [2]. *Splenic vein thrombosis* - **Splenic vein thrombosis** can result from inflammation and compression of the splenic vein by the diseased pancreatic tissue in chronic pancreatitis [1]. - This can lead to **splenomegaly** and **gastric varices** due to increased pressure in the portal system. *Pancreatic fistula* - A **pancreatic fistula** occurs when pancreatic fluid leaks from the gland, often forming a connection to another organ or the skin [2]. - This is a well-recognized complication of both acute and chronic pancreatitis, usually due to ductal disruption.
Question 1013: Subclavian steal syndrome is
- A. Reversal of blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery (Correct Answer)
- B. Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral carotid artery
- C. Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery
- D. B/L reversal of blood flow in vertebral arteries
Explanation: ***Reversal of blood flow in the ipsilateral vertebral artery*** - Subclavian steal syndrome occurs due to a **proximal stenosis** or **occlusion of the subclavian artery**. - This causes blood to be "stolen" from the **ipsilateral vertebral artery**, flowing retrograde to supply the arm and thereby reducing blood flow to the brainstem. *Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral carotid artery* - The carotid arteries supply blood to the brain directly and are typically not directly involved in thesteal phenomenon in this specific syndrome. - Reversal of flow in the carotid artery would indicate a much more severe and different pathology, not characteristic of subclavian steal. *Reversal of blood flow in the contralateral vertebral artery* - The steal phenomenon specifically involves the vertebral artery on the **same side (ipsilateral)** as the subclavian artery obstruction. - The contralateral vertebral artery would typically continue to supply blood to the brain without a reversed flow in this syndrome. *B/L reversal of blood flow in vertebral arteries* - Subclavian steal syndrome is generally a **unilateral phenomenon**, affecting the vertebral artery ipsilateral to the subclavian artery stenosis. - Bilateral reversal would imply bilateral subclavian artery obstruction or other severe cerebrovascular disease, which is not the definition of subclavian steal syndrome itself.
Orthopaedics
1 questionsWhiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?
NEET-PG 2013 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Whiplash injury is a tear of which ligament?
- A. Ligamenta flava
- B. Supraspinal ligament
- C. Post. longitudinal ligament (Correct Answer)
- D. Anterior longitudinal ligament
Explanation: ***Post. longitudinal ligament*** - Whiplash injury, often caused by **hyperextension-hyperflexion** of the cervical spine, commonly results in a tear of the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. - This ligament is crucial for stabilizing the spine and preventing **hyperflexion**, making it vulnerable during sudden, forceful movements. *Ligamenta flava* - The **ligamenta flava** are located on the posterior aspect of the vertebral canal and are primarily composed of elastic tissue, providing flexibility. - While they can be injured in severe trauma, they are less commonly implicated in typical whiplash compared to the **posterior longitudinal ligament**. *Anterior longitudinal ligament* - The **anterior longitudinal ligament** is primarily involved in preventing **hyperextension** of the spine. - While it can be injured in whiplash, the hyperextension phase typically stresses this ligament, but the hyperflexion rebound phase is more damaging to posterior structures. *Supraspinal ligament* - The **supraspinal ligament** connects the tips of the spinous processes and primarily limits **flexion** of the spine. - While it can be strained during whiplash, it is not the primary ligament commonly torn in typical whiplash injuries, which often involve deeper spinal ligaments.
Pathology
1 questionsRenal stones which are laminated and irregular in outline are
NEET-PG 2013 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Renal stones which are laminated and irregular in outline are
- A. Uric acid
- B. Calcium oxalate (Correct Answer)
- C. Struvite
- D. Cystine
Explanation: ***Calcium oxalate*** - **Calcium oxalate stones** are the most common type of kidney stones and characteristically present with a **laminated** (layered) and **irregular, spiculated outline** due to their crystalline structure - They are typically **radio-opaque** on X-rays due to their calcium content - The irregular outline distinguishes them from other stone types *Uric acid* - **Uric acid stones** are often **smooth**, hard, and **yellowish-brown** in appearance - They are **radio-lucent** on standard X-rays and are associated with conditions like gout or acidic urine - Their smooth surface contrasts with the irregular calcium oxalate stones *Struvite* - **Struvite stones** (magnesium ammonium phosphate) are strongly associated with **urinary tract infections** (UTIs) and can form **staghorn calculi**, filling the renal pelvis - They tend to be **friable** and have a **smooth or glistening** surface, often growing quite large - Associated with urease-producing bacteria *Cystine* - **Cystine stones** are caused by a genetic disorder affecting amino acid transport and generally appear **smooth, waxy, and hexagonal crystal-shaped** - They are typically **moderately radio-opaque** but less dense than calcium stones - The smooth, waxy appearance differs from the irregular calcium oxalate stones
Pediatrics
1 questionsAt what month does a baby typically sit in the tripod position?
NEET-PG 2013 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: At what month does a baby typically sit in the tripod position?
- A. 9 months
- B. 8 months
- C. 5 months
- D. 6 months (Correct Answer)
Explanation: **6 months** - Around **6 months** of age, infants typically develop sufficient **head control** and **trunk strength** to sit unsupported, often using their hands for balance in a **tripod position**. - This developmental milestone is crucial for further motor development, enabling improved visual exploration and hand use. *5 months* - At **5 months**, infants can usually **roll over** and support themselves on their forearms, but generally lack the **trunk stability** for unsupported sitting. - While they might briefly sit with support, the sustained **tripod position** is typically not achieved until later. *8 months* - By **8 months**, most infants can sit **unsupported for extended periods** and often begin to **crawl** or pull themselves to stand. - The tripod position is usually a precursor to fully unsupported sitting, which is well-established by this age. *9 months* - At **9 months**, infants are typically highly mobile, often **crawling**, **cruising** (walking while holding onto furniture), and sitting completely **independently** without needing hand support. - The need for a tripod position for stability would indicate a **developmental delay** at this age.
Physiology
1 questionsWhat is the expected Transtubular Potassium Gradient (TTKG) in a patient with hypokalemia due to extrarenal losses?
NEET-PG 2013 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: What is the expected Transtubular Potassium Gradient (TTKG) in a patient with hypokalemia due to extrarenal losses?
- A. < 3-4 (Correct Answer)
- B. 3-4
- C. > 4-5
- D. > 5-6
Explanation: ***< 3-4*** - A **Transtubular Potassium Gradient (TTKG)** of less than 3-4 indicates appropriate renal potassium conservation in response to hypokalemia. - This suggests that the hypokalemia is likely due to **extrarenal losses**, such as gastrointestinal losses (diarrhea, vomiting) or inadequate dietary intake, as the kidneys are working to retain potassium. *3-4* - A TTKG value in this range is typically considered indeterminate but could still point towards appropriate renal conservation if other clinical signs of extrarenal losses are present. - However, it does not as strongly confirm appropriate renal conservation as a value clearly below 3. *> 4-5* - A TTKG greater than 4-5 suggests **inappropriate renal potassium excretion** for a patient with hypokalemia. - This would indicate that the kidneys are complicit in the potassium loss, pointing towards renal causes of hypokalemia, such as **mineralocorticoid excess** or **diuretic use**. *> 5-6* - A TTKG greater than 5-6 strongly indicates significant **renal potassium wasting**. - This would be seen in conditions where the kidneys are actively secreting potassium despite hypokalemia, thereby contributing to the low potassium levels rather than conserving it.
Surgery
2 questionsPrimary treatment for localized malignant melanoma is
All are true about carcinoma penis except which of the following?
NEET-PG 2013 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1011: Primary treatment for localized malignant melanoma is
- A. Wide excision (Correct Answer)
- B. Radiotherapy
- C. Excision
- D. Chemotherapy
Explanation: ***Wide excision*** - This is the **primary treatment** for localized malignant melanoma, aiming to completely remove the tumor along with a surrounding margin of healthy tissue to reduce recurrence risk. - The excisional margin width depends on the **Breslow depth** (tumor thickness). *Radiotherapy* - Not the primary treatment for localized melanoma, as melanoma cells are often **radioresistant**. - It may be used as **adjuvant therapy** for local control in cases of positive margins or nodal involvement, or for palliative care in metastatic disease. *Excision* - While excision is part of the treatment, the term **"wide excision"** specifically implies removing a sufficient margin of healthy tissue around the tumor. - Simple excision without appropriate margins is generally inadequate for malignant melanoma and carries a **high risk of local recurrence**. *Chemotherapy* - It is generally **not the first-line treatment** for localized melanoma due to limited efficacy and significant side effects. - Chemotherapy agents are typically reserved for **advanced or metastatic melanoma** and are often replaced by targeted therapies or immunotherapy in modern practice.
Question 1012: All are true about carcinoma penis except which of the following?
- A. Leads to erosion of artery
- B. Spreads by blood borne metastasis (Correct Answer)
- C. Slowly progressive
- D. Most common type is squamous cell carcinoma
Explanation: ***Spreads by blood borne metastasis*** - Carcinoma penis typically spreads initially via the **lymphatic system** to inguinal lymph nodes. - **Hematogenous spread** is a late event and generally rare, with the most common sites being the lung, liver, and bone. *Leads to erosion of artery* - Local advancement of penile carcinoma can lead to **erosion of penile arteries**, which can cause significant morbidity including bleeding and functional compromise. - This local tissue destruction is a characteristic feature of advanced, uncontrolled penile cancer. *Slowly progressive* - Carcinoma penis is generally a **slowly progressive** malignancy, allowing for early detection and intervention if patients seek medical attention promptly. - The slow growth rate contributes to the fact that many patients present with localized or regionally advanced disease before distant metastases occur. *Most common type is squamous cell carcinoma* - Approximately 95% of penile cancers are **squamous cell carcinomas (SCCs)**, arising from the epithelial cells of the glans or foreskin. - Other rare types include melanoma, basal cell carcinoma, and sarcomas, but SCC vastly predominates.