Which of the following bacteria is not capsulated?
Which of the following statements about malaria transmission is correct?
In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is?
Inclusion body containing glycogen is seen in which of the following organisms?
Which of the following Chlamydia species is primarily associated with respiratory infections?
Which of the following is an intermediate level disinfectant?
Boutonneuse fever is caused by which of the following?
'String of pearl' colonies on penicillin-containing nutrient agar are produced by:
Which of the following is a saccharolytic species of Clostridium?
Which of the following bacteria does not exhibit bipolar staining?
NEET-PG 2013 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 31: Which of the following bacteria is not capsulated?
- A. Pneumococcus
- B. Klebsiella
- C. Meningococcus
- D. Proteus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Proteus*** - *Proteus* species are **non-capsulated bacteria**; their primary virulence factor is urease production and motility via flagella. - While they can cause infections, the lack of a capsule means they do not evade phagocytosis in the same manner as the other listed options. *Pneumococcus* - **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_**, commonly known as pneumococcus, is a highly **capsulated bacterium**. - Its polysaccharide capsule is a major **virulence factor** that inhibits phagocytosis, contributing to its ability to cause pneumonia, meningitis, and other invasive diseases. *Klebsiella* - **_Klebsiella pneumoniae_** is a **heavily capsulated Gram-negative bacterium** with a prominent polysaccharide capsule. - The thick capsule gives colonies a **mucoid appearance** and serves as a major **virulence factor** that protects against phagocytosis, contributing to pneumonia, UTIs, and other infections. *Meningococcus* - **_Neisseria meningitidis_**, or meningococcus, is a **capsulated bacterium**. - Its **polysaccharide capsule** is vital for immune evasion and is the basis for serogrouping and vaccine development against meningococcal disease.
Question 32: Which of the following statements about malaria transmission is correct?
- A. Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria. (Correct Answer)
- B. P. vivax always completely fills the infected RBC with schizonts.
- C. Malaria can only be transmitted through blood transfusions.
- D. All stages of P. falciparum are commonly seen in peripheral blood smears.
Explanation: ***Individuals harboring gametocytes can transmit malaria.*** - **Gametocytes** are the sexual stage of the malaria parasite that circulate in the human bloodstream and are infectious to mosquitos. - When an *Anopheles* mosquito feeds on an infected human, it ingests these gametocytes, allowing the parasite's life cycle to continue in the mosquito vector, leading to transmission. *P. vivax always completely fills the infected RBC with schizonts.* - While *P. vivax* does infect **reticulocytes** (young RBCs) and can enlarge them, the **schizonts** typically occupy a significant portion but not always completely fill the host cell. - The infected RBCs are often enlarged to about 1.5 to 2 times their normal size and contain numerous **Schüffner's dots**. *Malaria can only be transmitted through blood transfusions.* - The primary mode of malaria transmission is through the bite of an **infected female *Anopheles* mosquito**. - While **blood transfusions** can transmit malaria, it is a less common and secondary route compared to vector-borne transmission. *All stages of P. falciparum are commonly seen in peripheral blood smears.* - In *P. falciparum* infections, only the **ring forms** and **gametocytes** are commonly observed in the peripheral blood smear. - The more mature asexual stages (trophozoites and schizonts) typically sequester in the capillaries of internal organs, where they are not readily visible in peripheral circulation.
Question 33: In blood culture the ratio of blood to reagent is?
- A. 1:5
- B. 1:20
- C. 1:10 (Correct Answer)
- D. 1:100
Explanation: ***1:10*** - A 1:10 ratio of **blood to reagent (culture media)** is recommended for optimal growth of microorganisms in blood cultures. - This dilution minimizes the inhibitory effect of **human antimicrobial factors** present in the blood, while still providing sufficient blood volume for pathogen detection. *1:5* - A 1:5 ratio would mean a relatively **higher concentration of blood** in the culture. - This higher concentration could lead to increased inhibition of bacterial growth by **host defense mechanisms** or **antibiotics** present in the patient's blood, potentially causing false-negative results. *1:20* - A 1:20 ratio implies a **lower concentration of blood** relative to the culture media. - While it further dilutes inhibitory factors, it also reduces the total number of microorganisms sampled, possibly leading to **false-negative results** if the bacterial load is low. *1:100* - A 1:100 ratio would result in an **extremely low concentration of blood** in the culture. - This significantly reduces the likelihood of detecting microorganisms, especially when the **bacteremia is sparse**, due to insufficient bacterial inoculum, leading to a high rate of false negatives.
Question 34: Inclusion body containing glycogen is seen in which of the following organisms?
- A. Chlamydia trachomatis (Correct Answer)
- B. Chlamydia pneumoniae
- C. Chlamydia psittaci
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Chlamydia trachomatis*** - This species is known to form **intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies** that contain **glycogen**. - The presence of this glycogen allows these inclusions to be stained by **iodine**, aiding in laboratory identification. *Chlamydia pneumoniae* - Inclusion bodies of *Chlamydia pneumoniae* are typically **round or pear-shaped** and **do not contain glycogen**. - They are often **vacuolated** and stain poorly with iodine, unlike those of *C. trachomatis*. *Chlamydia psittaci* - The inclusion bodies of *Chlamydia psittaci* are usually **dense and pleiomorphic**, but they **do not contain glycogen**. - They tend to be **larger** and are often found near the host cell nucleus. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because *Chlamydia trachomatis* specifically forms **glycogen-containing inclusion bodies**. - The presence of glycogen within inclusions is a key distinguishing feature of this species.
Question 35: Which of the following Chlamydia species is primarily associated with respiratory infections?
- A. C psittaci
- B. C pneumoniae (Correct Answer)
- C. C trachomatis
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***C pneumoniae*** - *C. pneumoniae* is the **primary Chlamydia species** associated with **respiratory infections** in humans - It is a common cause of **community-acquired pneumonia** (5-10% of cases), **atypical pneumonia**, **bronchitis**, **pharyngitis**, and **sinusitis** - Transmission occurs via **respiratory droplets** from person to person - Causes both **acute and chronic respiratory infections** and has been linked to exacerbations of asthma and COPD - It is the most frequently encountered Chlamydia species in respiratory tract infections *C psittaci* - Causes **psittacosis** (ornithosis), a specific type of **atypical pneumonia** transmitted from **birds** (parrots, pigeons, poultry) - While it does cause respiratory infection, it is much **less common** than C. pneumoniae and is associated with **occupational or recreational bird exposure** - Not the primary Chlamydia species for general respiratory infections *C trachomatis* - Primarily causes **genital tract infections** (urethritis, cervicitis, PID) and **ocular infections** (trachoma, inclusion conjunctivitis) - Can cause **neonatal pneumonia** in infants exposed during birth, presenting at 1-3 months of age with a staccato cough - NOT a primary respiratory pathogen in adults *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **C. pneumoniae** is definitively the Chlamydia species primarily associated with respiratory infections
Question 36: Which of the following is an intermediate level disinfectant?
- A. Ethylene oxide
- B. Hypochlorite (Correct Answer)
- C. 2% glutaraldehyde
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Hypochlorite*** - **Hypochlorite** (e.g., sodium hypochlorite, bleach) is an effective **intermediate-level disinfectant** commonly used for surface disinfection and water purification. - It works by **oxidizing cellular components** and disrupting membrane function in microorganisms, effective against a wide range of bacteria, viruses, and some fungi. *2% glutaraldehyde* - **2% glutaraldehyde** is a **high-level disinfectant** and **sterilant** often used for heat-sensitive medical equipment like endoscopes. - It is effective against bacterial spores, mycobacteria, fungi, and viruses, which exceeds the scope of intermediate-level disinfection. *Ethylene oxide* - **Ethylene oxide** is a **gaseous sterilant** used for heat-sensitive and moisture-sensitive medical devices, making it a high-level modality. - It works by **alkylating proteins and nucleic acids**, effectively killing all forms of microbial life, including spores. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Hypochlorite** is indeed an intermediate-level disinfectant. - The classification of disinfectants is based on their ability to kill different types of microorganisms, with hypochlorite falling squarely into the intermediate category.
Question 37: Boutonneuse fever is caused by which of the following?
- A. A. Rickettsia japonica
- B. B. Rickettsia conorii (Correct Answer)
- C. C. Rickettsia sibirica
- D. D. Rickettsia australis
Explanation: ***Rickettsia conorii*** - **Boutonneuse fever**, also known as Mediterranean spotted fever, is specifically caused by the bacterium **Rickettsia conorii**. - This zoonotic disease is transmitted to humans through the bite of infected ticks, primarily the **dog tick** (Rhipicephalus sanguineus). *Rickettsia japonica* - **Rickettsia japonica** is the causative agent of **oriental spotted fever**, a tick-borne illness primarily found in Japan. - This Rickettsial disease is distinct from Boutonneuse fever, having a different geographical distribution and primary vector. *Rickettsia sibirica* - **Rickettsia sibirica** is responsible for **Siberian tick typhus** (North Asian tick typhus), which is prevalent in Siberia, Mongolia, and Northern China. - While also a tick-borne Rickettsial infection, its clinical presentation and geographic range differ from Boutonneuse fever. *Rickettsia australis* - **Rickettsia australis** causes **Queensland tick typhus**, an indigenous Rickettsial disease found in Australia. - This pathogen is distinct from Rickettsia conorii and causes a localized form of tick typhus.
Question 38: 'String of pearl' colonies on penicillin-containing nutrient agar are produced by:
- A. Salmonella
- B. Bacillus (Correct Answer)
- C. Proteus
- D. Klebsiella
Explanation: ***Bacillus*** - The "string of pearls" morphology is a classic characteristic of *Bacillus anthracis* when grown on a nutrient agar containing penicillin. - This appearance is due to the bacterium's cell wall being weakened by penicillin, leading to swollen, elongated cells that remain attached in a chain. *Proteus* - *Proteus* species are known for their characteristic **swarming motility** on agar, not a "string of pearls" appearance. - They are typically **resistant to penicillin** and would not show this inhibited growth pattern. *Salmonella* - *Salmonella* typically forms **smooth, round colonies** on agar and does not exhibit a "string of pearls" morphology. - While some species can be inhibited by penicillin, they do not develop this specific appearance. *Klebsiella* - *Klebsiella* species are typically **mucoid** due to their polysaccharide capsule, forming large, glistening colonies. - They are also often **resistant to penicillin** and would not show the "string of pearls" effect.
Question 39: Which of the following is a saccharolytic species of Clostridium?
- A. Clostridium tetani
- B. Clostridium septicum (Correct Answer)
- C. Clostridium cochlearium
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Clostridium septicum*** - *Clostridium septicum* is a **saccharolytic** species, meaning it ferments carbohydrates to produce gas, which contributes to the rapid tissue destruction seen in **gas gangrene**. - Its ability to rapidly consume sugars in tissues fuels its invasive growth and toxin production, which is characteristic of its pathogenic mechanism. *Clostridium tetani* - *Clostridium tetani* is a **proteolytic** species, primarily deriving its energy from **protein degradation**. - It does not ferment carbohydrates, and its pathogenicity is mainly due to the production of **tetanospasmin**, a neurotoxin. *Clostridium cochlearium* - *Clostridium cochlearium* is a **proteolytic** species that metabolizes proteins and amino acids. - It is not known for significant saccharolytic activity and is typically found in environments rich in protein. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because *Clostridium septicum* is indeed a saccharolytic species, as detailed above.
Question 40: Which of the following bacteria does not exhibit bipolar staining?
- A. Haemophilus influenzae (Correct Answer)
- B. Yersinia pestis
- C. Calymmatobacterium granulomatis
- D. Francisella tularensis
Explanation: ***Haemophilus influenzae*** - *Haemophilus influenzae* is a **pleomorphic coccobacillus** that typically stains uniformly and does not exhibit characteristic **bipolar staining**. - Its presence is often identified by Gram stain showing small, Gram-negative rods, but without the distinctive safety pin appearance. *Calymmatobacterium granulomatis* - *Calymmatobacterium granulomatis* (now *Klebsiella granulomatis*) is known to exhibit **bipolar staining**, often described as a **"safety pin" appearance**, especially in tissue smears from granuloma inguinale lesions. - This characteristic staining is due to the concentration of stain at the ends of the rod-shaped bacteria. *Yersinia pestis* - *Yersinia pestis*, the causative agent of plague, is classically described as having **bipolar staining**, giving it a distinctive **"safety pin" appearance** under a microscope. - This finding is a key diagnostic feature, particularly when observed in Gram-stained smears of clinical samples. *Francisella tularensis* - *Francisella tularensis* is a small, Gram-negative coccobacillus that is known to exhibit **bipolar staining**, though it may be less prominent than in *Yersinia pestis*. - This characteristic can assist in the microscopic identification of the bacterium, which causes tularemia.