Most common hematological malignancy associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cushing's triad?
What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of systemic sclerosis?
In total parenteral nutrition, which of the following parameters is not routinely measured daily?
Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as:
What is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?
Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
In the context of hemorrhagic pancreatitis, which sign is indicated by bluish discoloration of the flank?
The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 81: Most common hematological malignancy associated with Rheumatoid Arthritis (RA)?
- A. Diffuse large B cell lymphoma
- B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
- C. T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia
- D. Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGLL) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGLL)*** - **LGLL** is the most common hematological malignancy strongly associated with **rheumatoid arthritis (RA)**, often presenting with features such as **neutropenia** and splenomegaly. - Approximately 80% of patients with LGLL have a **T-cell phenotype**, and a significant subset experiences **autoimmune diseases**, with RA being the most frequent. *Diffuse large B cell lymphoma* - While patients with **RA** have an increased risk of **lymphoma**, **diffuse large B-cell lymphoma (DLBCL)** is a more aggressive type but not the most common hematologic malignancy directly associated with the disease itself in terms of prevalence [3]. - Inflammatory conditions like **RA** can contribute to chronic immune stimulation, increasing the risk of certain lymphomas, but LGLL holds a more direct and prevalent association [1]. *Chronic lymphocytic leukemia* - **Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)** is a lymphoproliferative disorder of **B lymphocytes**, but it does not have a particularly strong or common association with **RA** compared to LGLL [2]. - The elevated risk of hematological malignancies in RA patients typically points more towards lymphoproliferative disorders driven by specific immune dysregulations characteristic of RA. *T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia* - **T-cell prolymphocytic leukemia (T-PLL)** is a rare and aggressive **T-cell leukemia** that generally presents with a high white blood cell count and splenomegaly, but it is not commonly linked with **RA**. - Its clinical presentation and biology are distinct from the more indolent leukemias like LGLL that are often seen in conjunction with autoimmune conditions.
Question 82: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Cushing's triad?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Irregular breathing
- D. Hypotension (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Hypotension*** - Cushing's triad is an indicator of **increased intracranial pressure (ICP)** and classically presents with **hypertension**, not hypotension. - Hypotension would suggest a different problem, such as **spinal shock** or **hypovolemia**, which are not directly associated with Cushing's triad. *Bradycardia* - **Bradycardia** is a key component of Cushing's triad, resulting from vagal stimulation due to increased intracranial pressure. - This reflex reduces heart rate in an attempt to maintain cerebral perfusion. *Hypertension* - **Hypertension**, specifically a widened pulse pressure, is a cardinal feature of Cushing's triad, caused by systemic vasoconstriction to overcome increased ICP and maintain **cerebral perfusion pressure**. - It is a compensatory mechanism to push blood into the brain. *Irregular breathing* - **Irregular breathing patterns**, such as Cheyne-Stokes respiration or ataxic breathing, are characteristic of Cushing's triad, indicating brainstem compression [1]. - This irregular respiratory effort is due to direct pressure on the **respiratory centers** in the medulla [1].
Question 83: What are the key characteristics of Evans syndrome?
- A. Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia (Correct Answer)
- B. Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts
- C. High platelet and lymphocyte counts
- D. A reduction in all blood cell types
Explanation: ***Autoimmune hemolytic anemia and immune thrombocytopenia*** - **Evans syndrome** is defined by the simultaneous or sequential occurrence of **autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AIHA)** and **immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)** [1], [2]. - Both conditions involve the immune system mistakenly attacking and destroying **red blood cells** and **platelets**, respectively [1], [2]. *Low lymphocyte and red blood cell counts* - While **red blood cell counts** are low in Evans syndrome due to AIHA, **lymphocyte counts** are not a defining characteristic; they can vary. - This option does not fully capture the dual autoimmune destruction of red blood cells and platelets specific to Evans syndrome. *High platelet and lymphocyte counts* - **Platelet counts** are **low** in Evans syndrome due to ITP, not high. - **Lymphocyte counts** are not characteristically high; a high count might suggest other conditions like leukemias or lymphomas. *A reduction in all blood cell types* - A reduction in all (red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets) is known as **pancytopenia**, which is not the defining feature of Evans syndrome. - Evans syndrome specifically involves the destruction of **red blood cells** and **platelets**, but not necessarily all white blood cell types.
Question 84: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of systemic sclerosis?
- A. Calcinosis cutis
- B. Digital ulcers
- C. Acroosteolysis
- D. Gottron's papules (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Gottron's papules*** - **Gottron's papules** are pathognomonic for **dermatomyositis**, not systemic sclerosis. They are red, scaling papules found over the extensor surfaces of the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) and interphalangeal (IP) joints. - While both systemic sclerosis and dermatomyositis are connective tissue diseases, their distinct cutaneous manifestations aid in differentiation. *Acroosteolysis* - **Acroosteolysis** refers to the resorption of the distal phalanges, a common feature in systemic sclerosis, particularly in severe cases. - This symptom contributes to the characteristic digital abnormalities seen in the disease. *Calcinosis cutis* - **Calcinosis cutis** is the deposition of calcium in the skin and subcutaneous tissues, often seen in subsets of systemic sclerosis, especially the CREST syndrome. - It can manifest as firm, white-yellow nodules or plaques and contribute to skin breakdown. *Digital ulcers* - **Digital ulcers** are a frequent and debilitating complication of systemic sclerosis, resulting from severe **vasculopathy** [1] and **ischemia** [1]. - They are often painful and can lead to significant tissue loss and infection.
Question 85: In total parenteral nutrition, which of the following parameters is not routinely measured daily?
- A. Electrolyte
- B. Fluid intake and output
- C. Magnesium
- D. Liver function tests (LFTs) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Liver function tests (LFTs)*** - **LFTs** are typically monitored periodically (e.g., weekly or bi-weekly) in patients on TPN, not daily, unless there are specific concerns about liver dysfunction [1]. - Daily monitoring is generally not required because changes in liver function due to TPN are usually insidious and not acutely life-threatening in hours. *Electrolyte* - **Electrolytes** (e.g., sodium, potassium, chloride) are crucial for cellular function and fluid balance [2]. They can fluctuate rapidly with TPN administration and patient's clinical status. - Daily measurement ensures prompt correction of imbalances to prevent serious complications like **cardiac arrhythmias** or neurological disturbances [2]. *Fluid intake and output* - **Fluid intake and output** are essential for assessing **hydration status** and preventing fluid overload or dehydration, which can change rapidly [2]. - Daily monitoring helps guide adjustments to fluid administration in TPN and other intravenous fluids. *Magnesium* - **Magnesium** is an important electrolyte involved in numerous enzymatic reactions and neuromuscular function, and its levels can be significantly affected by TPN [2]. - Daily or frequent monitoring is often necessary, especially in the initial phases of TPN or in patients with pre-existing deficiencies, to prevent complications such as **cardiac arrhythmias** or **weakness** [2].
Question 86: Prepyloric or channel ulcer in the stomach is termed as:
- A. Type 3 (Correct Answer)
- B. Type 1
- C. Type 4
- D. Type 2
Explanation: ***Type 3*** - **Type 3 ulcers** are located in the **prepyloric region** or within the **pyloric channel** of the stomach. - They are often associated with **duodenal ulcers** and are characterized by **normal to high acid secretion**. *Type 1* - **Type 1 ulcers** are typically found in the **lesser curvature of the stomach body**, not the prepyloric region. - These ulcers are usually associated with **low or normal acid secretion** and are often linked to *H. pylori* infection. *Type 2* - **Type 2 ulcers** involve both a **gastric ulcer** (usually in the body) and an **active or healed duodenal ulcer**. - They are associated with **normal to high acid secretion**, but the location is not exclusively prepyloric. *Type 4* - **Type 4 ulcers** are located high on the **lesser curvature near the gastroesophageal junction**. - They are associated with **low acid secretion** and are sometimes termed **juxta-esophageal ulcers**.
Question 87: What is the volume of blood loss associated with Class III hemorrhagic shock?
- A. 750 - 1500 ml
- B. 1500 - 2000 ml (Correct Answer)
- C. > 2000 ml
- D. < 750 ml
Explanation: ***1500 - 2000 ml*** - **Class III hemorrhagic shock** is characterized by a significant loss of blood volume, typically ranging from **30-40%** of total blood volume. - For an average adult, this translates to an estimated **1500-2000 ml** of blood loss, leading to marked physiological compromise. *750 - 1500 ml* - This range of blood loss corresponds to **Class II hemorrhagic shock**, where physiological changes are moderate, but compensatory mechanisms are still largely effective. - Patients in Class II shock typically present with **tachycardia** and a slight decrease in pulse pressure but generally normal blood pressure. *> 2000 ml* - A blood loss exceeding **2000 ml** (or >40% of total blood volume) is indicative of **Class IV hemorrhagic shock**, the most severe category. - This level of blood loss results in pronounced **hypotension**, severe tachycardia, and often requires immediate massive transfusion to prevent irreversible organ damage. *< 750 ml* - This range represents **Class I hemorrhagic shock**, which involves a minimal blood loss of up to 15% of total blood volume. - Patients in Class I shock typically show **minimal to no clinical signs of shock**, as compensatory mechanisms are highly effective in maintaining vital signs.
Question 88: Which of the following is a complication of total parenteral nutrition?
- A. Hyperglycemia (Correct Answer)
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia
- D. Hyperosmolar dehydration
Explanation: ***Hyperglycemia*** - Total parenteral nutrition (TPN) solutions contain a high concentration of **dextrose** (glucose), which can lead to elevated blood glucose levels, especially in patients with pre-existing metabolic issues or high infusion rates. - The sudden and continuous infusion of carbohydrates can overwhelm the body's **insulin response**, resulting in hyperglycemia [3]. *Hyperkalemia* - **Hypokalemia**, rather than hyperkalemia, is a more common electrolyte disturbance associated with TPN due to intracellular shifts of potassium with glucose metabolism [2]. - While TPN solutions do contain potassium, hyperkalemia is generally rare unless there is significant renal impairment or excessive potassium supplementation. *Hyperglycemia and Hyperkalemia* - While **hyperglycemia** is a common complication, **hyperkalemia** is not; in fact, hypokalemia is a more frequent concern linked to the significant glucose load in TPN. - This option incorrectly pairs a common complication with one that is rare and generally only seen in specific circumstances. *Hyperosmolar dehydration* - This condition, also known as **hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)**, is a severe complication that can arise from uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where high glucose levels lead to osmotic diuresis and severe dehydration [1]. - While hyperglycemia is a precursor to hyperosmolar dehydration, the direct complication of TPN administration itself is the hyperglycemia.
Question 89: In the context of hemorrhagic pancreatitis, which sign is indicated by bluish discoloration of the flank?
- A. Grey Turner's sign (Correct Answer)
- B. Cullen's sign
- C. Trousseau's sign
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Grey Turner's sign*** - This sign refers to **bluish discoloration of the flank** due to **hemorrhage** into the retroperitoneal space, commonly seen in severe hemorrhagic pancreatitis. [1] - The discoloration is caused by **peripancreatic inflammation** and fat necrosis, leading to localized bleeding. *Cullen's sign* - Cullen's sign is characterized by **bluish discoloration around the umbilicus**. - It is also indicative of **retroperitoneal hemorrhage**, but specifically in the periumbilical region. *Trousseau's sign* - This sign refers to **carpal spasm** induced by inflating a blood pressure cuff above systolic pressure for several minutes. - It is indicative of **hypocalcemia**, not hemorrhage, and is seen in conditions like pancreatitis that cause low calcium levels. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **Grey Turner's sign** specifically describes the bluish discoloration of the flank associated with hemorrhagic pancreatitis.
Question 90: The common cause of subarachnoid hemorrhage is:
- A. Arterio-venous malformation
- B. Cavernous angioma
- C. Aneurysm (Correct Answer)
- D. Hypertension
Explanation: ***Aneurysm*** - Aneurysms, particularly **saccular** or **berry aneurysms**, are the most frequent cause of **spontaneous subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)**, accounting for about 80-85% of cases [2]. - The sudden rupture of an intracranial aneurysm leads to blood spilling into the **subarachnoid space**, causing characteristic symptoms like a "thunderclap headache" [1]. *Arterio-venous malformation* - While AV malformations (AVMs) can cause SAH, they are a less common cause than aneurysms, accounting for approximately 5-10% of cases. - AVMs are abnormal direct connections between arteries and veins that bypass the capillary system and can rupture, leading to SAH or intraparenchymal hemorrhage. *Cavernous angioma* - Cavernous angiomas are abnormal clusters of dilated, thin-walled capillaries that can lead to hemorrhage, but they primarily cause **intraparenchymal hemorrhage** rather than SAH. - They are much less likely to result in diffuse bleeding into the subarachnoid space compared to ruptured aneurysms. *Hypertension* - Hypertension is a significant risk factor for the formation and rupture of aneurysms [1], but it is not a direct cause of SAH itself in the same way an aneurysm rupture is. - While uncontrolled hypertension is often associated with **intracerebral hemorrhage** (bleeding within the brain tissue), its direct role in causing SAH is usually secondary to an underlying vascular abnormality like an aneurysm.