NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine Practice Questions

Q: Torsades de pointes is seen in all except

Hyponatremia. ***Hyponatremia*** - **Hyponatremia** (low sodium levels) primarily affects neuronal function and can lead to neurological symptoms like seizures and altered mental status [1]. - It does not directly cause **QT prolongation** or **Torsades de Pointes (TdP)**, which are typically associated with electrolyte imbalances affecting cardiac repolarization. *Hypocalcemia* - **Hypocalcemia** (low calcium levels) can prolong the **QT interval** on an electrocardiogram. - Prolongation of the QT interval increases the risk of developing **Torsades de Pointes**, a life-threatening polymorphic ventricular tachycardia [2]. *Hypomagnesemia* - **Hypomagnesemia** (low magnesium levels) is a common cause and aggravator of **Torsades de Pointes**. - Magnesium plays a crucial role in cardiac ion channel function, and its deficiency can lead to significant **QT prolongation** and ventricular arrhythmias. *Hypokalemia* - **Hypokalemia** (low potassium levels) can prolong the **QT interval** and increase the risk of developing ventricular arrhythmias, including **Torsades de Pointes** [1]. - Potassium channels are essential for cardiac repolarization, and their dysfunction due to low potassium can destabilize myocardial electrical activity [1].

Q: ECG image showing U wave. Patient is on furosemide and beta blocker. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Hypokalemia. ***Hypokalemia*** - The presence of **U waves** on an ECG is a classic sign of **hypokalemia**, often seen when serum potassium levels drop below 3.0 mEq/L. - The patient is taking **furosemide**, a loop diuretic, which commonly causes potassium loss and thus **hypokalemia**. *Hypocalcemia* - Hypocalcemia typically manifests on an ECG as a **prolonged QT interval**, not prominent U waves. - While furosemide can affect calcium, it usually leads to **hypercalcemia** due to volume contraction, not hypocalcemia. *Hyperkalemia* - Hyperkalemia is characterized by **tall, peaked T waves**, a **prolonged PR interval**, and a **widened QRS complex** on an ECG. U waves are absent. - Furosemide *causes* potassium excretion, making hyperkalemia an unlikely finding in this context. *Hypercalcemia* - Hypercalcemia typically causes a **shortened QT interval** on an ECG. U waves are not a feature. - While furosemide may sometimes lead to slight increases in calcium, it is not associated with U waves.

Q: In which condition is Cepacia syndrome most commonly associated?

Cystic fibrosis. ***Cystic fibrosis*** - **Cepacia syndrome** is a severe and often fatal complication in patients with **cystic fibrosis** caused by infection with bacteria of the *Burkholderia cepacia complex*. - Patients with cystic fibrosis have impaired mucociliary clearance, making them highly susceptible to chronic bacterial infections, including those leading to Cepacia syndrome. *Sarcoidosis* - **Sarcoidosis** is a multisystem inflammatory disease characterized by the formation of **non-caseating granulomas**, primarily affecting the lungs and lymph nodes. - It is not associated with bacterial infections causing Cepacia syndrome. *Tuberculosis* - **Tuberculosis** is caused by *Mycobacterium tuberculosis* and primarily affects the lungs, leading to granuloma formation and tissue destruction. - While it is a chronic bacterial infection, it does not typically lead to or interact with the *Burkholderia cepacia complex* in the way seen in Cepacia syndrome. *Immotile cilia syndrome* - Also known as **primary ciliary dyskinesia**, this condition involves defective ciliary function leading to recurrent respiratory infections and other issues like situs inversus. - Although patients have recurrent respiratory infections, **Cepacia syndrome** is not a characteristic or commonly associated complication.

Q: What is the most common cause of lobar consolidation?

Streptococcus. ***Streptococcus*** - **_Streptococcus pneumoniae_** is the **most common bacterial cause** of community-acquired pneumonia, frequently leading to lobar consolidation. [1] - It often presents with classic symptoms such as **sudden onset of fever**, productive cough with **rusty sputum**, and pleuritic chest pain. [1] *Mycoplasma* - **_Mycoplasma pneumoniae_** typically causes **"walking pneumonia"**, characterized by a more indolent course and often presents with **interstitial infiltrates** rather than dense lobar consolidation. - Though common, it is a less frequent cause of true lobar consolidation compared to _Streptococcus pneumoniae_. *Chlamydia* - **_Chlamydia pneumoniae_** causes atypical pneumonia, similar to _Mycoplasma_, presenting with less severe symptoms and **patchy infiltrates** or **interstitial patterns** rather than lobar consolidation. - It is a common cause of **atypical pneumonia** but not the leading cause of lobar consolidation. *Legionella* - **_Legionella pneumophila_** can cause severe pneumonia with consolidation, but it is **less common overall** than pneumococcal pneumonia. [1] - **Legionnaires' disease** is often associated with exposure to contaminated water sources and may present with **gastrointestinal and neurological symptoms** in addition to respiratory manifestations.

Q: Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Bronchiectasis?

Night sweats. ***Night sweats*** - While **night sweats** can be present in chronic infections, they are not considered a primary or defining clinical feature directly associated with the pathology of bronchiectasis itself. - They are more commonly linked with systemic conditions like **tuberculosis** or malignancy, which would require alternative diagnostic pathways. *Hemoptysis* - **Hemoptysis** (coughing up blood) is a common and often alarming symptom of bronchiectasis due to the inflammation and damage to the bronchial walls and underlying vasculature [1]. - Blood vessels in damaged airways are prone to rupture, leading to bleeding, which can range from blood-streaked sputum to massive hemorrhage [1]. *Chest pain* - **Chest pain** can occur in bronchiectasis, often related to the chronic cough, pleural inflammation, or musculoskeletal strain from persistent coughing. - It can also be a symptom if there's an associated infection or inflammation extending to the pleura. *Productive cough* - A **chronic productive cough** with significant amounts of purulent sputum is the hallmark symptom of bronchiectasis [1]. - This is due to the impaired mucociliary clearance and chronic infection within the dilated, damaged airways .

Q: The physiological marker of the last stage of acute asthma is

Increased carbon dioxide levels (Hypercapnia). ***Increased carbon dioxide levels (Hypercapnia)*** - In severe, acute asthma, **air trapping** and **muscle fatigue** lead to inadequate ventilation and impaired gas exchange [1]. - This results in a buildup of carbon dioxide in the blood, indicating impending **respiratory failure** and a critical stage of the asthma exacerbation [3]. *Hypocapnia* - **Hypocapnia**, or low blood CO2, is common in the **early stages** of an asthma attack due to **tachypnea** (rapid breathing) in an effort to compensate [1]. - As the condition worsens, the ability to ventilate adequately diminishes, leading to CO2 retention [3]. *Hyperoxia* - **Hyperoxia** means abnormally high levels of oxygen in the blood, which is generally not a physiological marker of acute asthma. - Patients with acute asthma typically experience **hypoxemia** (low oxygen levels) due to ventilation-perfusion mismatch [1]. *Alkalosis* - **Respiratory alkalosis** (high pH due to low CO2) can occur in the early stages as patients **hyperventilate**. - However, in the late stages, as CO2 builds up (**hypercapnia**), the patient shifts towards **respiratory acidosis** (low pH), which is a sign of severe compromise [2], [3].

Q: Which of the following is a characteristic finding in distal RTA?

Hypercalciuria. ***Hypercalciuria*** - **Hypercalciuria** is a characteristic finding in distal RTA (Type 1), leading to increased calcium in the urine. - This occurs due to reduced **distal tubular reabsorption of calcium** and increased bone resorption from chronic acidosis. *Urine pH 5.5** [1]. - A urine pH < 5.5 would suggest a normal kidney response to systemic acidosis, ruling out distal RTA. *Hypokalemia* - While hypokalemia can occur in distal RTA, it is not always present and is not the most definitive characteristic finding. - **Hypokalemia** is more characteristic of Type 1 RTA due to increased potassium excretion in an attempt to excrete H+ ions. *Nephrolithiasis* - **Nephrolithiasis** (kidney stones) is a common complication of distal RTA due to hypercalciuria and alkaline urine [2]. - However, hypercalciuria is the *reason* for the increased risk of nephrolithiasis, making it a more fundamental characteristic finding.

Q: Which of the following is not a feature of distal renal tubular acidosis

Hyperkalemia. ***Hyperkalemia*** - **Distal renal tubular acidosis (dRTA)** is characterized by impaired acid excretion, leading to metabolic acidosis. The impaired excretion of acid is often accompanied by impaired potassium secretion, resulting in **hypokalemia**, not hyperkalemia. - While hyperkalemia is a feature of **type 4 RTA**, which is characterized by hypoaldosteronism or renal tubular unresponsiveness to aldosterone, it is not a feature of **distal RTA (type 1)**. [1] *Normal anion gap* - **Distal RTA** is a form of **normal anion gap metabolic acidosis**, also known as **hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis**. [1] - The anion gap is calculated as [Na+] - ([Cl-] + [HCO3-]), and in dRTA, the bicarbonate loss is compensated by an increase in chloride, maintaining a normal anion gap. *Renal hypercalciuria* - **Distal RTA** is associated with **impaired acid excretion**, which leads to chronic metabolic acidosis. - This **acidosis** promotes the dissolution of bone, releasing calcium, and decreases tubular reabsorption of calcium, resulting in **hypercalciuria**. *Alkaline urine* - In **distal RTA**, the distal tubule is unable to acidify the urine due to a defect in hydrogen ion secretion. - This leads to a persistent **urine pH > 5.5** (typically alkaline or inappropriately normal) despite systemic acidosis, making it a key diagnostic feature. [1]

Q: Hyperkalemia aciduria is seen in

Type IV Renal Tubular Acidosis. Type IV Renal Tubular Acidosis - This condition is characterized by **hyperkalemia** and **aciduria**, often due to a deficiency in aldosterone or a renal tubular insensitivity to aldosterone [1]. - The impaired aldosterone action leads to reduced potassium excretion and decreased ammonium production, both contributing to **hyperkalemia** and metabolic acidosis [1]. *Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis* - Type I RTA (distal RTA) is characterized by a defect in acid secretion in the distal tubule, leading to **hypokalemia** and metabolic acidosis with persistently high urine pH [2]. - Patients typically excrete an alkaline urine despite systemic acidosis, contrasting with the aciduria seen with hyperkalemia [2]. *Sigmoidocolostomy procedure* - A sigmoidocolostomy can lead to **hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis** due to the reabsorption of chloride and excretion of bicarbonate by the colonic mucosa. - However, it typically causes **hypokalemia** as potassium is secreted into the colonic lumen from the blood. *Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis* - Type II RTA (proximal RTA) involves a defect in bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule, resulting in **hypokalemia** and metabolic acidosis. - The kidney's ability to acidify urine is still largely intact in the distal nephron once the bicarbonate buffer system is overwhelmed.

Question 1

Torsades de pointes is seen in all except

Accepted Answer

Hyponatremia

Answer

Hypomagnesemia

Answer

Hypokalemia

Answer

Hypocalcemia

Question 2

ECG image showing U wave. Patient is on furosemide and beta blocker. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Hypokalemia

Answer

Hypocalcemia

Answer

Hyperkalemia

Answer

Hypercalcemia

Question 3

Which of the following statements is true regarding the diagnostic criteria for Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

Accepted Answer

A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio below the threshold indicates airflow limitation.

Answer

A post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio above the threshold indicates normal lung function.

Answer

Residual Volume (RV) is normal.

Answer

Total Lung Capacity (TLC) is decreased.

Question 4

In which condition is Cepacia syndrome most commonly associated?

Accepted Answer

Cystic fibrosis

Answer

Immotile cilia syndrome

Answer

Sarcoidosis

Answer

Tuberculosis

Question 5

What is the most common cause of lobar consolidation?

Accepted Answer

Streptococcus

Answer

Mycoplasma

Answer

Chlamydia

Answer

Legionella

Question 6

Which of the following is not a clinical feature of Bronchiectasis?

Accepted Answer

Night sweats

Answer

Hemoptysis

Answer

Chest pain

Answer

Productive cough

Question 7

The physiological marker of the last stage of acute asthma is

Accepted Answer

Increased carbon dioxide levels (Hypercapnia)

Answer

Hypocapnia

Answer

Hyperoxia

Answer

Alkalosis

Question 8

Which of the following is a characteristic finding in distal RTA?

Accepted Answer

Hypercalciuria

Answer

Urine pH < 5.5

Answer

Hypokalemia

Answer

Nephrolithiasis

Question 9

Which of the following is not a feature of distal renal tubular acidosis

Accepted Answer

Hyperkalemia

Answer

Renal hypercalciuria

Answer

Normal anion gap

Answer

Alkaline urine

Question 10

Hyperkalemia aciduria is seen in

Accepted Answer

Type IV Renal Tubular Acidosis

Answer

Type I Renal Tubular Acidosis

Answer

Sigmoidocolostomy procedure

Answer

Type II Renal Tubular Acidosis

NEET-PG 2013 — Internal Medicine