Primary hypercholesterolemia is:
Which of the following is a non- modifiable risk factor for CHD -
Autoimmune thyroiditis is associated with all except which of the following?
Creatine kinase is elevated in MI after
Which of the following glands is NOT typically involved in Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type II A (MEN II A)?
Cryoprecipitate is useful in which of the following conditions?
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
What is the most common location of gastrinoma?
Which one of the following is the most common CNS tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
Which of the following statements about Gilbert syndrome is false?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 11: Primary hypercholesterolemia is:
- A. Type I
- B. Type IIb
- C. Type IIa (Correct Answer)
- D. Type III
Explanation: ***Type Ha*** - **Primary hypercholesterolemia** specifically refers to **Familial Hypercholesterolemia**, which is classified as Type Ha due to a genetic defect affecting LDL receptor activity [1]. - It typically presents with **high cholesterol levels** and an increased risk of premature cardiovascular disease [1]. *Type I* - Type I hyperlipoproteinemia is associated with **chylomicronemia**, leading to elevated triglycerides rather than cholesterol. - Symptoms include **pancreatitis** and eruptive xanthomas, not primarily high cholesterol levels. *Type III* - Type III hyperlipoproteinemia is known as **Dysbetalipoproteinemia**, associated with **increased IDL** and can cause elevated cholesterol, but is not classified as primary hypercholesterolemia. - It typically presents with **tuberous xanthomas** and is linked to **apolipoprotein E deficiency**. *Type IIb* - Type IIb hyperlipoproteinemia involves **elevation of LDL and VLDL**, but it is not classified as primary hypercholesterolemia; it is a mixed dyslipidemia. - This type usually features **increased cholesterol** and **triglycerides**, distinguishing it from the familial form classified as Type Ha.
Question 12: Which of the following is a non- modifiable risk factor for CHD -
- A. Diabetes
- B. Smoking
- C. Hypertension
- D. Old age (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Old age - Age is a **non-modifiable risk factor** for Coronary Heart Disease (CHD) because it is an inherent biological process that cannot be changed [3]. - The risk of developing CHD **increases with age** due to cumulative exposure to other risk factors and natural wear and tear on the cardiovascular system [3]. *Diabetes* - Diabetes is a **modifiable risk factor** for CHD because it can be managed and controlled through lifestyle changes, medication, and regular monitoring [2]. - **Poorly controlled diabetes** significantly increases the risk of heart disease by damaging blood vessels and promoting atherosclerosis. *Smoking* - Smoking is a highly **modifiable risk factor** for CHD as it can be completely stopped [1], [2]. - **Cessation of smoking** significantly reduces the risk of heart attack and stroke over time [1]. *Hypertension* - Hypertension is a **modifiable risk factor** for CHD because blood pressure can be lowered through lifestyle interventions, such as diet and exercise, and pharmacotherapy [2]. - **Uncontrolled high blood pressure** places increased stress on the heart and blood vessels, accelerating the development of atherosclerosis [1].
Question 13: Autoimmune thyroiditis is associated with all except which of the following?
- A. DM
- B. Myasthenia gravis
- C. SLE
- D. Psoriasis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriasis*** - Psoriasis is generally not associated with **autoimmune thyroiditis**, which is more commonly linked to other autoimmune disorders [1]. - Autoimmune thyroiditis does not typically result in the **skin changes** seen in psoriasis, distinguishing them clinically. *Sly* - Sly syndrome, while a genetic disorder, is not directly connected to **autoimmune thyroiditis**. - Conditions like Sly syndrome are metabolic and do not involve the autoimmune pathways typically seen in thyroiditis. *Myasthenia gravis* - Myasthenia gravis is an **autoimmune neuromuscular disorder** that can occur concurrently with thyroid diseases, particularly **thyroiditis** [1]. - Both conditions arise from **autoimmune processes**, making their association plausible [1]. *DM* - Diabetes Mellitus (DM), particularly Type 1, is often linked with other autoimmune diseases, including **autoimmune thyroiditis** [2]. - They share a common **autoimmune pathway**, making them more likely to co-occur than psoriasis [2].
Question 14: Creatine kinase is elevated in MI after
- A. 4-8 hours
- B. >24 hours
- C. 12-24 hours
- D. 2-4 hours (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***2-4 hours*** - **Creatine kinase (CK)** levels typically begin to rise within **2-4 hours** after the onset of myocardial infarction. - This early elevation makes CK an effective, though non-specific, marker for **acute MI** in the initial stages [1]. *4-8 hours* - While CK levels may continue to rise during this period, the initial measurable elevation usually occurs earlier, within **2-4 hours**. - A significant elevation at 4-8 hours would indicate that the myocardial event occurred at least several hours prior. *12-24 hours* - Creatine kinase levels typically peak much earlier, between **12-24 hours**, rather than just beginning to elevate at this time. - By this time, other more specific markers like **troponins** would also be significantly elevated and are often preferred for diagnosis [1], [2]. *>24 hours* - Beyond 24 hours, CK levels usually start to decline, making it less useful for the initial detection of an acute MI that began many hours earlier. - For events occurring over 24 hours ago, a positive CK would indicate that the event had happened, but it's not the first time it would be elevated.
Question 15: Which of the following glands is NOT typically involved in Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type II A (MEN II A)?
- A. Pituitary gland (Correct Answer)
- B. Thyroid gland
- C. Parathyroid gland
- D. Adrenal gland
Explanation: ***Pituitary gland*** - The **pituitary gland** is not a characteristic component of **MEN II A**. It is, however, associated with **Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type I (MEN I)**, which involves the 3 Ps: **pituitary**, **parathyroid**, and **pancreas** [1]. - **MEN IIA** classically involves **medullary thyroid carcinoma**, **pheochromocytoma**, and **parathyroid hyperplasia** [1]. *Thyroid gland* - The **thyroid gland** is centrally involved in MEN IIA, specifically through the development of **medullary thyroid carcinoma (MTC)**, a hallmark feature. - MTC arises from the parafollicular C cells of the thyroid and secretes **calcitonin**. *Parathyroid gland* - The **parathyroid gland** is often involved in MEN IIA, typically presenting as **parathyroid hyperplasia** or adenoma, leading to **primary hyperparathyroidism**. - This typically results in elevated **parathyroid hormone** levels and **hypercalcemia**. *Adrenal gland* - The **adrenal gland** is a key player in MEN IIA due to the occurrence of **pheochromocytoma**, a tumor of the adrenal medulla. - Pheochromocytomas can be bilateral and secrete **catecholamines**, leading to hypertension and other symptoms.
Question 16: Cryoprecipitate is useful in which of the following conditions?
- A. Hemophilia A
- B. Thrombosthenia
- C. Warfarin reversal
- D. Afibrinogenemia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Afibrinogenemia*** - Cryoprecipitate is rich in **fibrinogen**, factor VIII, factor XIII, von Willebrand factor, and fibronectin. It is the only blood product with a substantial concentration of fibrinogen. - **Afibrinogenemia** (or hypofibrinogenemia) is a condition characterized by low or absent levels of fibrinogen, a critical clotting factor that cryoprecipitate replaces effectively. *Hemophilia A* - Hemophilia A is a deficiency of **Factor VIII**. While cryoprecipitate contains factor VIII, **recombinant Factor VIII concentrates** are the preferred treatment due to better safety (reduced risk of viral transmission) and more precise dosing [1]. - Cryoprecipitate was historically used for Hemophilia A before the availability of safer, more specific factor concentrates [2]. *Thrombosthenia* - Thrombasthenia is a platelet function disorder characterized by defective **glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptors** on platelets, leading to impaired platelet aggregation. - Cryoprecipitate does not contain platelets or factors that directly correct platelet function, making **platelet transfusions** the treatment of choice for severe bleeding in thrombasthenia. *Warfarin reversal* - Warfarin reversal is primarily achieved using **Vitamin K**, which restores levels of functional clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. - For rapid reversal in emergencies, **prothrombin complex concentrate (PCC)** is preferred because it contains high concentrations of these vitamin K-dependent factors, addressing the primary deficiency caused by warfarin [1].
Question 17: Which of the following is NOT a feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome?
- A. Mucocutaneous pigmentation
- B. Autosomal recessive inheritance (Correct Answer)
- C. Autosomal dominant
- D. Hamartomatous polyp
Explanation: ***High risk of malignancy*** - Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is primarily associated with **benign hamartomatous polyps**, not a **high risk of malignancy**, which distinguishes it from other syndromes. - Although patients may develop cancers [1], the syndrome itself does not inherently denote a high malignancy risk like other syndromes such as familial adenomatous polyposis. *Autosomal dominant* - This syndrome is indeed **autosomal dominant**, caused by mutations in the STK11 gene. - Families with this condition typically show **vertical transmission**, characteristic of autosomal dominant inheritance. *Hamartomatous polyp* - Individuals with Peutz-Jeghers syndrome develop **hamartomatous polyps**, which are a hallmark feature of the condition [1]. - These polyps can occur in the gastrointestinal tract and are benign lesions rather than adenomatous type seen in other syndromes [1]. *Mucocutaneous pigmentation* - Mucocutaneous pigmentation, such as **freckling around the lips and buccal mucosa**, is a key clinical feature of Peutz-Jeghers syndrome. - This pigmentation usually appears in childhood and is often a distinguishing sign of the syndrome.
Question 18: What is the most common location of gastrinoma?
- A. Pancreas
- B. Duodenum (Correct Answer)
- C. Jejunum
- D. Gall bladder
Explanation: ***Duodenum*** - The **duodenum** is the most common site for gastrinomas, accounting for over **half of all cases**, particularly in sporadic gastrinoma and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome. - These tumors are often **small** and **multiple** in the duodenum, making them challenging to locate. *Pancreas* - Pancreatic gastrinomas are also common, representing approximately **25-40% of cases**, but are less frequent than duodenal gastrinomas. - Pancreatic gastrinomas tend to be **larger** and more amenable to surgical resection when compared to duodenal gastrinomas. *Jejunum* - Gastrinomas found in the jejunum are **rare**, accounting for only a small percentage of cases. - The small intestine distal to the duodenum is an **uncommon site** for primary gastrinoma formation. *Gall bladder* - The **gallbladder** is not a typical location for gastrinoma development. - Gastrinomas are neuroendocrine tumors that arise from **gastrin-producing cells**, which are not found in the gallbladder.
Question 19: Which one of the following is the most common CNS tumor associated with type I neurofibromatosis?
- A. Optic nerve glioma (Correct Answer)
- B. Meningioma
- C. Acoustic schwannoma
- D. Low grade astrocytoma
Explanation: ***Optic nerve glioma*** - **Optic nerve gliomas** are the most frequently encountered central nervous system tumors in patients with **Type 1 neurofibromatosis (NF1)**, occurring in about 15% of individuals. - They are typically low-grade **astrocytomas** and can cause vision loss and proptosis depending on their size and location. *Meningioma* - While more common in **Type 2 neurofibromatosis (NF2)**, meningiomas can occur in NF1, but are not the most common CNS tumor. - Meningiomas are tumors that arise from the **meninges**, the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord. *Acoustic schwannoma* - **Bilateral acoustic schwannomas (vestibular schwannomas)** are the hallmark feature of **Type 2 neurofibromatosis (NF2)**, not NF1 [1]. - These tumors arise from the Schwann cells of the **vestibulocochlear nerve** and can cause hearing loss and balance issues [1]. *Low grade astrocytoma* - While optic nerve gliomas are a type of low-grade astrocytoma, this option is too general; **optic nerve glioma** is the specific and most common presentation in NF1. - Other forms of low-grade astrocytomas can occur in NF1 but are not as universally characteristic as optic nerve gliomas.
Question 20: Which of the following statements about Gilbert syndrome is false?
- A. Normal liver histology
- B. Autosomal dominant
- C. Elevated bilirubin levels are present
- D. Causes cirrhosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Causes cirrhosis*** - **Gilbert syndrome** is a benign condition characterized by intermittent unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and does **not lead to cirrhosis** [1]. - Cirrhosis is a severe form of **liver scarring** resulting from chronic damage, which is not a feature of Gilbert syndrome. *Normal liver histology* - The liver structure and function in individuals with Gilbert syndrome are typically **normal**, distinguishing it from other liver disorders [2]. - Histological examination of liver biopsies usually reveals no abnormalities, reflecting the **benign nature** of the condition. *Autosomal dominant* - Gilbert syndrome is inherited in an **autosomal recessive** pattern, not autosomal dominant [2]. - It results from a reduction in the activity of the **UGT1A1 enzyme**, which is responsible for bilirubin conjugation [1], [2]. *Elevated bilirubin levels are present* - Individuals with Gilbert syndrome experience **intermittent unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia**, meaning their indirect bilirubin levels are elevated [3]. - This elevation is usually mild and can be exacerbated by stress, fasting, or illness, but it is typically **harmless** [1], [2].