In a patient with heart disease, which condition is most commonly associated with left atrial enlargement?
Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?
Which type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?
What condition is characterized by a short fourth metacarpal?
All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:
What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?
Lovibond profile sign is seen in ?
Which of the following is not classified as a cutaneous porphyria?
All are seen in Behçet's syndrome except:
Match stick test is positive in ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 131: In a patient with heart disease, which condition is most commonly associated with left atrial enlargement?
- A. Mitral stenosis (Correct Answer)
- B. Tricuspid regurgitation
- C. AR
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Mitral stenosis*** - **Mitral stenosis** leads to an obstruction of blood flow from the **left atrium to the left ventricle**, causing pressure buildup in the left atrium [1]. - This increased pressure over time results in **left atrial enlargement** as the chamber struggles to push blood through the narrowed valve [1]. *Tricuspid regurgitation* - **Tricuspid regurgitation** involves the backflow of blood from the **right ventricle to the right atrium**. - This condition primarily affects the **right side of the heart**, leading to **right atrial enlargement**, not left. *AR* - **Aortic regurgitation (AR)** is the backflow of blood from the **aorta into the left ventricle**. - While AR can cause **left ventricular enlargement** and eventually lead to left atrial dilation, it is not the most common direct cause of *primary* left atrial enlargement compared to mitral stenosis [2]. *None of the options* - **Mitral stenosis** is a well-established cause of significant left atrial enlargement due to the direct pressure overload it imposes on the left atrium [1].
Question 132: Wireless capsule endoscopy is done to visualize which of the following condition?
- A. Esophageal varices
- B. Gastric carcinoma
- C. Crohn's disease (Correct Answer)
- D. Ulcerative colitis
Explanation: ***Crohn's disease*** - Wireless capsule endoscopy is primarily used to visualize the **small bowel**, which is the main site of involvement in Crohn's disease [3]. - It helps detect **mucosal inflammation**, ulcers, and strictures that may not be accessible by conventional endoscopy [1]. *Esophageal varices* - **Esophageal varices** are best visualized and treated with conventional **esophagogastroduodenoscopy (EGD)**, which allows for direct intervention [2]. - Capsule endoscopy is not the preferred method due to its inability to adequately distend the esophagus or perform therapeutic maneuvers [4]. *Gastric carcinoma* - Diagnosing **gastric carcinoma** requires visualization of the stomach lining, typically achieved through **conventional upper endoscopy** with biopsies [2]. - The capsule may pass too quickly through the stomach or miss subtle lesions, and it cannot obtain tissue samples. *Ulcerative colitis* - **Ulcerative colitis** primarily affects the **colon**, which is visualized using a **colonoscopy** [3]. - While capsule endoscopy can visualize the small bowel, it is not effective for examining the colon due to insufficient imaging of the entire large intestine and lack of biopsy capabilities.
Question 133: Which type of arthritis is characterized by the absence of a periosteal reaction?
- A. Psoriatic arthritis
- B. Neuropathic arthritis (Correct Answer)
- C. Rheumatoid arthritis
- D. Reactive arthritis
Explanation: ***Neuropathic arthritis*** - **Neuropathic arthritis** (**Charcot joint**) is characterized by progressive joint destruction due to loss of proprioception and pain sensation, leading to severe bone and joint damage without a typical **periosteal reaction**. - The absence of normal protective reflexes results in repetitive microtrauma, often leading to bone resorption and fragmentation rather than new bone formation (periosteal reaction). *Psoriatic arthritis* - **Psoriatic arthritis** often presents with distinctive **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses and along the shafts of small bones (e.g., "pencil-in-cup" deformities and fluffy periostitis) [1]. - These periosteal changes are a hallmark of the inflammatory process affecting bone and connective tissues in psoriatic arthritis. *Rheumatoid arthritis* - **Rheumatoid arthritis** primarily involves the synovium, leading to erosions rather than prominent periosteal reactions in early stages [1]. - While periostitis can occur in chronic, destructive rheumatoid arthritis, it is not a primary or characteristic finding compared to other inflammatory arthritides. *Reactive arthritis* - **Reactive arthritis** frequently causes **periosteal reactions**, particularly at entheses (where tendons and ligaments attach to bone) and along the shafts of long bones, often described as "fluffy" periostitis [1]. - These new bone formations are a key radiological feature distinguishing it from other types of inflammatory arthritis.
Question 134: What condition is characterized by a short fourth metacarpal?
- A. Primary Hyperparathyroidism
- B. Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
- C. Pseudohypoparathyroidism (Correct Answer)
- D. Scleroderma
Explanation: Pseudohypoparathyroidism - **Pseudohypoparathyroidism** is characterized by end-organ resistance to parathyroid hormone (PTH), leading to hypocalcemia and hyperphosphatemia [2, 4]. - Patients often present with **Albright's hereditary osteodystrophy**, which includes characteristic features like a **shortened fourth metacarpal**, short stature, rounded face, and obesity [2, 4]. *Primary Hyperparathyroidism* - **Primary hyperparathyroidism** involves excessive PTH production from an adenoma or hyperplasia of the parathyroid glands [1, 3, 5]. - This typically leads to **hypercalcemia** and **hypophosphatemia**, and does not involve a short fourth metacarpal as a characteristic feature [1, 3, 5]. *Secondary Hyperparathyroidism* - **Secondary hyperparathyroidism** occurs as a compensatory response to hypocalcemia, often due to chronic kidney disease or vitamin D deficiency [1]. - It’s characterized by elevated PTH levels alongside the underlying cause of hypocalcemia, without the classic skeletal deformities seen in pseudohypoparathyroidism [1, 4]. *Scleroderma* - **Scleroderma** is a chronic autoimmune disease characterized by thickening and hardening of the skin and connective tissues. - It can lead to various complications like Raynaud phenomenon and internal organ fibrosis, but a **short fourth metacarpal is not a feature** of this condition.
Question 135: All are common sites of primary cancer for bone metastasis except:
- A. Prostate
- B. Lung
- C. Brain (Correct Answer)
- D. Thyroid
Explanation: ***Brain*** - The **brain** is not a common site for primary bone metastasis, as bone metastases typically originate from organs like the **breast**, **lung**, and **prostate**. - While brain tumors can metastasize to bone, the reverse (primary bone cancer) occurring here is rare. *Breast* - Breast cancer is one of the **most prevalent sources** of bone metastases, commonly affecting the spine and pelvis. - Symptoms often include **bone pain** and potential fractures due to metastasis. *Brain* - Similar to , while brain tumors can metastasize, **primary cancers** do not commonly originate in the bone. - The **metastatic spread** to the brain from other primary sites is common, but not the other way around. *Breast* - Again, breast cancer commonly leads to **bone metastasis**, accounting for a significant percentage of these cases. - It is important to identify busy metastasis to **manage** symptoms and improve patient outcomes.
Question 136: What will the aspirated synovial fluid in a case of septic arthritis typically show?
- A. Clear and straw-colored fluid
- B. Low viscosity fluid
- C. Cloudy or purulent fluid
- D. Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Markedly increased polymorphonuclear leukocytes*** - **Septic arthritis** is characterized by an acute infection within the joint, leading to a profound inflammatory response with a significant influx of **neutrophils** (polymorphonuclear leukocytes) into the synovial fluid. - A synovial leukocyte count greater than **50,000 cells/mm³** with over **75% neutrophils** is highly suggestive of septic arthritis. *Clear and straw-colored fluid* - This description typically corresponds to **normal synovial fluid** or fluid from a mild **non-inflammatory condition**, which is not consistent with bacterial infection. - Normal synovial fluid is usually **transparent**, indicating the absence of significant cellular debris or inflammatory cells. *Low viscosity fluid* - While septic synovial fluid can have reduced viscosity due to the breakdown of **hyaluronic acid** by bacterial enzymes and inflammatory mediators, this characteristic alone is not the most definitive diagnostic feature. - Reduced viscosity is also observed in other inflammatory conditions, making it less specific than direct cellular analysis for diagnosing infection. *Cloudy or purulent fluid* - The presence of **cloudy** or **purulent (pus-like)** fluid *is* often seen in septic arthritis, reflecting the high cell count and protein content. - However, this is a **gross visual observation**, and a more precise and diagnostic indicator is the microscopic finding of markedly increased **polymorphonuclear leukocytes**.
Question 137: Lovibond profile sign is seen in ?
- A. Koilonychia (spoon nails)
- B. Platynochia (flat nails)
- C. Nail clubbing (Correct Answer)
- D. Onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed)
Explanation: Nail clubbing - The Lovibond profile sign (Lovibond's angle or profile sign) is a clinical finding where the angle between the nail plate and the proximal nail fold straightens or becomes greater than 180 degrees. - This sign is a key indicator of nail clubbing, which is often associated with underlying systemic conditions such as respiratory or cardiac diseases [1]. Koilonychia (spoon nails) - Koilonychia presents as concave or spoon-shaped nails, where the nail plate is depressed centrally with everted edges [1]. - This condition is typically associated with iron deficiency anemia and does not involve an alteration of the Lovibond angle. Platynochia (flat nails) - Platynochia refers to nails that are unusually flat without the normal convex curvature. - This is a descriptive term for nail shape and is not specifically evaluated by the Lovibond profile sign. Onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed) - Onycholysis is the detachment of the nail plate from the nail bed, usually starting at the distal free edge. - This condition is unrelated to the angle of the nail and the nail fold, which are assessed by the Lovibond profile sign.
Question 138: Which of the following is not classified as a cutaneous porphyria?
- A. Congenital erythropoietic porphyria
- B. Erythropoietic protoporphyria
- C. Sideroblastic anemia (Correct Answer)
- D. Hereditary coproporphyria
Explanation: ***Hereditary coproporphyria*** - This condition is primarily associated with **acute episodes** and **neuropathy**, rather than cutaneous manifestations. [2] - Unlike cutaneous porphyrias, symptoms are more systemic and do not commonly present with **skin lesions**. Although skin features can occur in some instances, they mimic porphyria cutanea tarda. [2] *Congenital erythropoeitic porphyria* - Characterized by severe **cutaneous symptoms** such as blistering and photosensitivity due to **skin exposure**. - Patients exhibit notable **facial disfigurement** and can have **hemolytic anemia**, aligning it clearly with the cutaneous forms of porphyria. *Sideroblastic anemia* - This condition involves issues with **hemoglobin synthesis** and does not fit the porphyria classification. [1] - It primarily presents with **microcytic anemia**, and the symptoms are primarily hematological, not cutaneous. [1] *Erythropoeitic porphyria* - Characterized by **severe photosensitivity** and skin manifestations, similar to congenital erythropoeitic porphyria. [1] - Patients may develop **blisters** and **hyperpigmentation** upon sun exposure, categorizing it among cutaneous porphyrias. [2]
Question 139: All are seen in Behçet's syndrome except:
- A. Pyoderma gangrenosum (Correct Answer)
- B. Erythema nodosum
- C. Genital ulcers
- D. Oral ulcers
Explanation: ***Pyoderma gangrenosum*** - While Behçet's syndrome can involve skin lesions, **pyoderma gangrenosum** is not typically part of its diagnostic criteria or common manifestations. - Pyoderma gangrenosum is a distinct neutrophilic dermatosis characterized by rapidly enlarging, painful ulcers. *Erythema nodosum* - **Erythema nodosum** is a common dermatological manifestation in Behçet's syndrome, characterized by tender subcutaneous nodules, usually on the shins. - These lesions reflect the systemic inflammatory nature of the disease in various organs. *Genital ulcers* - **Genital ulcers** are one of the major diagnostic criteria for Behçet's syndrome, often painful and recurrent. - They tend to be deep and can form scars, appearing on the scrotum, penis, labia, or perianal area. *Oral ulcers* - **Recurrent oral aphthous ulcers** are the most common and often the initial symptom of Behçet's syndrome. - These ulcers are typically painful, varying in size, and can occur on any mucosal surface in the mouth.
Question 140: Match stick test is positive in ?
- A. Rhinophyma
- B. P. versicolor
- C. Leprosy (Correct Answer)
- D. Rhinoscleroma
Explanation: ***Leprosy*** - The **matchstick test** is a simple neurological examination used to detect **nerve damage** in leprosy, specifically **sensory loss** [1]. - A positive test indicates the patient cannot perceive the touch or pain from a matchstick, commonly due to damage to superficial nerves caused by *Mycobacterium leprae* [1]. *Rhinophyma* - This condition is characterized by **sebaceous gland hypertrophy** and **fibrosis** of the nose, often associated with rosacea. - It does not involve nerve damage or sensory loss that would be assessed by a matchstick test. *Rhinoscleroma* - Rhinoscleroma is a **chronic granulomatous bacterial infection** of the upper respiratory tract. - While it causes significant tissue destruction and structural changes, it is not primarily associated with the sensory neuropathies that the matchstick test evaluates. *P. vesticolor* - *Pityriasis versicolor* is a **superficial fungal infection** of the skin, causing discolored patches. - This condition is a dermatological issue and does not involve nerve damage or sensory deficits, making the matchstick test irrelevant.