NEET-PG 2013 — Community Medicine
94 Previous Year Questions with Answers & Explanations
Which Millennium Development Goal specifically addresses HIV/AIDS?
What term describes the patterns of inter-relationships between individuals in a society?
Screening for colorectal cancer is recommended when?
What term describes the accepted behaviors and practices within a society?
What is the Chandler's Index for Hookworm that indicates a significant health problem?
Which of the following individuals is known for their significant contributions to public health legislation in the 19th century?
What is the date observed as World AIDS Day?
Which of the following diseases is classified under category-B of bioterrorism?
What was the target reduction in child mortality rates set by the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) between 1990 and 2015?
Dukoral is:
NEET-PG 2013 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1: Which Millennium Development Goal specifically addresses HIV/AIDS?
- A. Goal 1: Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger
- B. Goal 3: Promote gender equality and empower women
- C. Goal 6: Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases (Correct Answer)
- D. Goal 8: Develop a global partnership for development
Explanation: ***Goal 6: Combat HIV/AIDS, malaria and other diseases*** - This Millennium Development Goal (MDG) directly focused on reducing the spread of **HIV/AIDS**, malaria, and other major diseases as a key global health priority. - It included targets such as halting and beginning to reverse the incidence of HIV/AIDS, and achieving universal access to treatment for HIV/AIDS for all who need it. *Goal 1: Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger* - This goal addressed fundamental socioeconomic issues like **poverty** and **food insecurity**, which are broad determinants of health but not specific to HIV/AIDS. - While poverty can exacerbate the impact of HIV/AIDS, this MDG did not directly target the disease itself. *Goal 3: Promote gender equality and empower women* - This MDG focused on improving the status of women and girls, recognizing that **gender inequality** can be a risk factor for HIV transmission. - However, it did not directly address the combatting of HIV/AIDS as its primary objective. *Goal 8: Develop a global partnership for development* - This goal focused on improving international cooperation for development, including access to affordable **essential medicines**, which could include antiretrovirals for HIV/AIDS. - While it supported efforts to combat HIV/AIDS through partnerships, it was not solely dedicated to this health challenge.
Question 2: What term describes the patterns of inter-relationships between individuals in a society?
- A. Social structure (Correct Answer)
- B. Social relationships
- C. Social networks
- D. Social systems
Explanation: ***Social structure*** - This term encompasses the **persistent, organized patterns** of relationships and institutions that shape social interaction within a society. - It refers to the underlying framework that dictates how individuals and groups are connected and positioned relative to each other. *Social relationships* - This refers to the **individual connections and interactions** between people, such as friendships, family ties, or professional collaborations. - While social relationships are components of social structure, they do not describe the overarching patterns of inter-relationships at a societal level. *Social networks* - This term describes the **specific web of social ties** that link individuals to one another, often visualized as nodes and connections. - While useful for mapping connections, it is a more specific concept than the broader idea of social structure, which includes institutional arrangements and roles. *Social systems* - This refers to a **set of interconnected social components** that function together to maintain order and stability within a society. - While social structure is a key aspect of a social system, the term "social system" itself is broader, encompassing the dynamic processes and functions alongside the established patterns.
Question 3: Screening for colorectal cancer is recommended when?
- A. The condition has a low case fatality rate.
- B. Diagnostic tools are not available.
- C. There is no effective treatment available.
- D. Early diagnosis can change the disease course due to effective treatment. (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Early diagnosis can change the disease course due to effective treatment.*** - Screening is primarily recommended when **early detection** allows for interventions that effectively alter the natural history of the disease, improving prognosis or preventing progression. - For colorectal cancer, early diagnosis through screening allows for timely removal of **precancerous polyps** or early-stage cancers, significantly increasing survival rates. *The condition has a low case fatality rate.* - Conditions with low case fatality rates generally do not warrant extensive screening programs, as the **benefit-to-harm ratio** is often unfavorable. - Colorectal cancer, if undiagnosed and untreated, has a significant **case fatality rate**, making screening beneficial. *Diagnostic tools are not available.* - Screening is only conducted when **reliable, accurate, and cost-effective diagnostic tools** are available to detect the disease or its precursors in asymptomatic individuals. - If diagnostic tools are unavailable, screening would be impossible or ineffective, as there would be no way to identify those with the condition. *There is no effective treatment available.* - Screening is not typically recommended for diseases for which there is **no effective treatment**, as early detection would not improve patient outcomes. - The primary purpose of screening is to identify individuals who can benefit from **early intervention** and treatment to prevent serious morbidity or mortality.
Question 4: What term describes the accepted behaviors and practices within a society?
- A. Customs (Correct Answer)
- B. Traditions
- C. Cultural Practices
- D. Folkways
Explanation: ***Customs*** - **Customs** refer to the established, accepted behaviors and practices within a society that are widely recognized and followed by its members. - They are more enduring and deeply entrenched than informal folkways, representing institutionalized or significant social practices that guide social conduct. - Customs encompass the general norms, traditions, and behaviors that define "the way things are done" in a particular society. *Folkways* - **Folkways** are informal everyday customs, manners, and practices learned through observation and imitation (e.g., table manners, greetings). - They are a **subset** of customs, specifically referring to minor, informal norms with mild social disapproval for violations. - While folkways are accepted behaviors, they are too narrow to describe all "accepted behaviors and practices" in society. *Traditions* - **Traditions** are customs or beliefs passed down through generations with historical or symbolic significance. - They emphasize **intergenerational transmission** and continuity over time, making them more specific than the general concept of "accepted behaviors." *Cultural Practices* - **Cultural practices** is an umbrella term encompassing all ways a group behaves, thinks, and interacts, including beliefs, values, rituals, and institutions. - While accurate, it is **too broad** a term—customs is the more precise sociological term for accepted behaviors and practices.
Question 5: What is the Chandler's Index for Hookworm that indicates a significant health problem?
- A. > 200
- B. > 100
- C. > 300
- D. > 50 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***> 50*** - A Chandler's Index of **> 50** indicates a significant public health problem due to **hookworm infection**. - **Chandler's Index** is calculated as the **average egg count per person in a community** (total hookworm eggs counted ÷ number of persons examined), used to assess the population-level burden of hookworm infection. - A value **> 50** suggests that the community has a significant hookworm problem requiring public health intervention. *> 300* - This value is significantly higher than the threshold for a significant public health problem and would indicate an **extremely severe burden of infection**. - While this represents a very high Chandler's Index, it's not the standard cut-off for defining a "significant" health problem (which is the lower threshold of >50). *> 200* - A Chandler's Index of **> 200** would denote a very high intensity of hookworm infection in the community. - However, this is not the standard threshold used to define when hookworm becomes a "significant" public health issue - the threshold is lower at >50. *> 100* - A Chandler's Index of **> 100** represents a substantial level of hookworm infection within a population. - However, the widely recognized cutoff for a "significant health problem" is **> 50**, indicating public health concern even at this moderate level of community infection burden.
Question 6: Which of the following individuals is known for their significant contributions to public health legislation in the 19th century?
- A. Edwin Chadwick (Correct Answer)
- B. Joseph Lister
- C. William Farr
- D. John Snow
Explanation: ***Edwin Chadwick*** - **Edwin Chadwick** was a central figure in the 19th-century public health movement in Britain, known for advocating for comprehensive sanitary reform. - His most famous work, the **"Report on the Sanitary Condition of the Labouring Population of Great Britain" (1842)**, laid the groundwork for public health legislation, influencing the **Public Health Act of 1848**. *John Snow* - **John Snow** was a physician known for his groundbreaking work in epidemiology, particularly his investigation into the **1854 Broad Street cholera outbreak**. - While his work was crucial for understanding disease transmission, his primary contributions were not in public health legislation but in establishing the **germ theory of disease** and modern epidemiology. *Joseph Lister* - **Joseph Lister** was a surgeon and a pioneer of antiseptic surgery, introducing the use of **carbolic acid** to sterilize instruments and wounds. - His contributions drastically reduced post-operative infections but were focused on surgical practice rather than large-scale public health legislation. *William Farr* - **William Farr** was a prominent Victorian epidemiologist and statistician, considered one of the founders of medical statistics. - He developed systems for **classifying diseases** and collecting vital statistics, which greatly informed public health policy but his direct role in drafting legislation was less prominent than Chadwick's.
Question 7: What is the date observed as World AIDS Day?
- A. 7 April
- B. 3 May
- C. 5 June
- D. 1 December (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Correct Answer: 1 December*** - **World AIDS Day** is observed annually on **December 1st** to raise awareness about the AIDS pandemic caused by the spread of **HIV infection** and to mourn those who have died of the disease. - This date was chosen by James W. Bunn and Thomas Netter, two public information officers for the Global Programme on AIDS at the **World Health Organization (WHO)**, in August 1987. - The first World AIDS Day was observed in **1988**. *Incorrect: 7 April* - **April 7th** is recognized as **World Health Day**, which marks the anniversary of the founding of the World Health Organization (WHO) in 1948. - This day focuses on a specific health theme each year to highlight a priority area of concern for the WHO. *Incorrect: 3 May* - **May 3rd** is celebrated as **World Press Freedom Day**, which aims to raise awareness of the importance of freedom of the press and to remind governments of their duty to respect and uphold the right to freedom of expression. - This date does not have a direct association with AIDS awareness or public health campaigns. *Incorrect: 5 June* - **June 5th** is designated as **World Environment Day**, the United Nations' principal vehicle for encouraging worldwide awareness and action for the protection of our environment. - This day is focused on environmental issues and sustainability, not specifically on HIV/AIDS.
Question 8: Which of the following diseases is classified under category-B of bioterrorism?
- A. Anthrax
- B. Plague
- C. Botulism
- D. Cholera (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Cholera*** - **Cholera** is classified under **Category B** agents due to its moderate ease of dissemination, moderate morbidity rates, and low mortality rates. - While it can cause severe diarrheal disease, its treatment is relatively straightforward with **rehydration therapy**, and it poses a lower risk of mass casualties compared to Category A agents. *Anthrax* - **Anthrax** is a **Category A** bioterrorism agent, characterized by its high mortality rate, ease of dissemination, and potential for major public health impact. - It poses a significant threat due to its ability to form **spores** that are highly resistant and can cause severe lung infection. *Plague* - **Plague** is designated as a **Category A** agent because of its high potential for mass dissemination, high mortality if untreated, and potential to cause widespread panic. - It can be spread via **aerosols** and can lead to severe systemic illness. *Botulism* - **Botulism** is classified as a **Category A** agent due to the extreme potency of the **botulinum toxin**, even in minute quantities, which can cause severe flaccid paralysis and death. - It has a high potential for causing severe public health impact and requires complex medical interventions.
Question 9: What was the target reduction in child mortality rates set by the Millennium Development Goals (MDGs) between 1990 and 2015?
- A. Half
- B. Two-thirds (Correct Answer)
- C. One-fourth
- D. One-third
Explanation: ***Two-thirds*** - The **Millennium Development Goal 4 (MDG 4)** specifically aimed to **reduce child mortality by two-thirds** among children under five years old between 1990 and 2015. - This target focused on improving maternal and child health outcomes globally. *Half* - Reducing child mortality by half was not the specific target set by MDG 4 for the 1990-2015 period. - While improvements were sought, the ambition was a more substantial reduction. *One-fourth* - A reduction of one-fourth would have been a significantly lower target than what was ultimately set and pursued by the MDGs. - The goals were designed to be ambitious yet achievable. *One-third* - Reducing child mortality by one-third falls short of the actual target established by the MDGs. - The international community aimed for a greater impact on child survival rates.
Question 10: Dukoral is:
- A. Oral cholera vaccine (Correct Answer)
- B. Oral rotavirus vaccine
- C. Oral typhoid vaccine
- D. Ready to use therapeutic food
Explanation: ***Oral cholera vaccine*** - Dukoral is a **killed oral whole-cell vaccine** against *Vibrio cholerae* O1 and O139, often combined with a recombinant B subunit of cholera toxin. - It provides protection against **cholera**, an acute diarrheal illness caused by bacterial infection of the small intestine. *Oral rotavirus vaccine* - Oral rotavirus vaccines (e.g., Rotarix, RotaTeq) provide protection against **rotavirus**, the most common cause of severe diarrhea in infants and young children. - These vaccines are usually given in multiple doses to infants and are distinct from cholera vaccines. *Oral typhoid vaccine* - An oral typhoid vaccine, such as Ty21a, is used for the prevention of **typhoid fever**, caused by *Salmonella Typhi*. - It is a **live attenuated vaccine** administered in several doses over a week, differing significantly from Dukoral's mechanism and target. *Ready to use therapeutic food* - **Ready-to-use therapeutic food (RUTF)** is a high-energy, micronutrient-rich paste used for the treatment of **severe acute malnutrition (SAM)**, especially in children. - It is a nutritional intervention, not a vaccine, and helps in weight gain and recovery for malnourished individuals.