In which of the following conditions is protein catabolism MOST increased?
Which porphyrin forms the organic component of heme?
Hay's sulfur test is used to detect which of the following?
Which of the following statements about hemoglobin is true?
Which of the following statements about chaperones is false?
Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?
What is the primary effect of moderate alcohol consumption on cholesterol levels?
What is the role of Anandamide in the human body?
Which immunoglobulin is known to be heat-labile?
All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except ?
NEET-PG 2013 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 111: In which of the following conditions is protein catabolism MOST increased?
- A. Burns (Correct Answer)
- B. Surgery
- C. Starvation
- D. Fever
Explanation: ***Burns*** - Severe burns lead to a profound **hypermetabolic state** with the highest increase in **protein catabolism** among all the options listed. - The extensive tissue damage triggers massive breakdown of muscle protein to provide amino acids for **wound healing**, **acute phase protein synthesis**, and **immune response**. - Burns can increase metabolic rate by **100-200%**, with protein catabolism far exceeding that of other stress conditions. *Starvation* - While starvation initially increases protein catabolism, the body adapts within days by shifting towards **ketone body utilization** to spare protein. - After adaptation, protein breakdown decreases to **20-30 grams per day** to preserve lean body mass. - The goal is survival through metabolic adaptation, not tissue repair. *Surgery* - Major surgery induces a **stress response** that increases protein catabolism, but it is typically less severe and shorter-lived than burns. - The degree of catabolism is proportional to the **magnitude of surgical trauma** and usually resolves within days. - Protein catabolism increases by **50-75%** in major surgery compared to **100-200%** in severe burns. *Fever* - Fever increases basal metabolic rate by approximately **13% per degree Celsius** rise in body temperature. - While metabolism is elevated, protein catabolism is **modest** compared to the massive tissue destruction and repair demands of severe burns. - The increase is primarily in energy expenditure, not protein breakdown.
Question 112: Which porphyrin forms the organic component of heme?
- A. Uroporphyrin
- B. Coproporphyrin
- C. Deuteroporphyrin
- D. Protoporphyrin IX (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Protoporphyrin IX*** - **Heme** is formed by the insertion of an **iron atom (Fe2+)** into the center of **protoporphyrin IX**. - **Protoporphyrin IX** is the immediate precursor to heme in the **heme synthesis pathway**. *Uroporphyrin* - **Uroporphyrin** is an earlier precursor in the **heme synthesis pathway** and is much more hydrophilic than protoporphyrin. - It accumulates in diseases like **congenital erythropoietic porphyria (CEP)**, leading to photosensitivity. *Coproporphyrin* - **Coproporphyrin** is an intermediate in the **heme synthesis pathway**, formed after uroporphyrinogen. - It is also more water-soluble than protoporphyrin and its accumulation can be seen in various porphyrias. *Deuteroporphyrin* - **Deuteroporphyrin** is a synthetic porphyrin or a less common natural porphyrin that is not directly involved as the organic component of heme in mammals. - While it is structurally similar to protoporphyrin, it does not serve as the direct precursor for heme formation in the human body.
Question 113: Hay's sulfur test is used to detect which of the following?
- A. Bile salts in urine (Correct Answer)
- B. Reducing sugar in urine
- C. Ketone bodies in urine
- D. Urobilinogen in urine
Explanation: ***Bile salts in urine*** - Hay's sulfur test is a classic qualitative test used to detect the presence of **bile salts** in a urine sample. - Bile salts reduce the **surface tension** of urine, causing sulfur powder to sink when sprinkled on the surface. *Reducing sugar in urine* - Reducing sugars (like glucose) are typically detected using tests such as **Benedict's test** or glucose oxidase strips, not Hay's sulfur test. - These tests rely on color changes due to the **reduction of copper ions** or enzymatic reactions, respectively. *Ketone bodies in urine* - Ketone bodies (acetoacetate, beta-hydroxybutyrate, acetone) are detected using tests like the **Rothera's test** or dipsticks, which react with acetoacetate. - These reactions produce color changes in the presence of ketones, unrelated to surface tension. *Urobilinogen in urine* - Urobilinogen in urine is commonly detected using **Ehrlich's reagent** (e.g., in a dipstick test) which forms a red color. - Elevated urobilinogen indicates issues with liver function or hemolysis, and its detection does not involve surface tension.
Question 114: Which of the following statements about hemoglobin is true?
- A. Each hemoglobin molecule can bind up to six O2 molecules.
- B. Each hemoglobin subunit contains two heme groups, which bind oxygen.
- C. Hemoglobin consists of two alpha and two beta subunits, each capable of binding one O2 molecule. (Correct Answer)
- D. Each hemoglobin molecule is made of 6 polypeptide chains.
Explanation: ***Hemoglobin consists of two alpha and two beta subunits, each capable of binding one O2 molecule.*** - A **hemoglobin molecule is a tetramer**, meaning it is composed of four protein subunits: two alpha (α) chains and two beta (β) chains. - Each of these four subunits contains one **heme group**, which is an iron-containing porphyrin complex that can reversibly bind one molecule of **oxygen (O2)**. *Each hemoglobin molecule can bind up to six O2 molecules.* - A single hemoglobin molecule, with its **four heme groups**, can bind a maximum of **four O2 molecules**, not six. - The capacity for oxygen binding is directly proportional to the number of heme groups present in the hemoglobin molecule. *Each hemoglobin subunit contains two heme groups, which bind oxygen.* - Each individual **hemoglobin subunit (alpha or beta)** contains **only one heme group**, not two. - Therefore, a complete hemoglobin molecule (with four subunits) contains a total of four heme groups. *Each hemoglobin molecule is made of 6 polypeptides, one for each subunit.* - A hemoglobin molecule is composed of **four polypeptide chains** (two alpha and two beta), not six. - This tetrameric structure is crucial for its function and **cooperative oxygen binding**.
Question 115: Which of the following statements about chaperones is false?
- A. Are lipid in nature (Correct Answer)
- B. Cause folding of proteins
- C. Include heat shock proteins
- D. May have ATPase activity
Explanation: ***Are lipid in nature*** - Chaperones are **proteins** (typically **heat shock proteins** or **chaperonins**), not lipids. - Their function involves assisting in the proper **folding and assembly of other proteins**, and they are composed of amino acids. *Cause folding of proteins* - Chaperones **do not cause** proteins to fold; rather, they **assist in proper folding** and refolding by preventing aggregation or misfolding. - They bind to nascent or partially unfolded proteins to guide them towards their correct three-dimensional structure. *May have ATPase activity* - Many chaperones, especially **Hsp70** and **chaperonins** like GroEL/GroES, utilize **ATP hydrolysis** for their function. - This **ATPase activity** drives conformational changes essential for binding, release, and refolding of their client proteins. *Include heat shock proteins* - The **heat shock protein (Hsp)** families (e.g., Hsp70, Hsp90, Hsp60) are a major class of chaperones. - Hsps are upregulated in response to stress (like heat) to help refold damaged proteins and prevent aggregation.
Question 116: Which of the following is not an acute phase reactant?
- A. C-reactive protein
- B. Haptoglobin
- C. Endothelin (Correct Answer)
- D. Fibrinogen
Explanation: ***Endothelin*** - Endothelin is a **vasoconstrictive peptide** primarily involved in regulating **blood vessel tone** and blood pressure. - While it plays a role in processes like inflammation and tissue repair, it is not synthesized or regulated in the same rapid, systemic manner as a classic acute phase reactant. *C-reactive protein* - **C-reactive protein (CRP)** is a rapidly responding acute phase reactant produced by the liver in response to **inflammation**, infection, and tissue injury. - Its levels can rise dramatically within hours of an inflammatory stimulus and are used as a marker for disease activity. *Haptoglobin* - **Haptoglobin** is an acute phase reactant that binds to free **hemoglobin** released from red blood cells during hemolysis, preventing oxidative damage. - Its levels typically increase during acute inflammation or infection, although it can also decrease with severe hemolysis. *Fibrinogen* - **Fibrinogen** is a critical acute phase protein involved in the **coagulation cascade** and wound healing. - Its concentration increases significantly during acute inflammation, contributing to the elevated **erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)**.
Question 117: What is the primary effect of moderate alcohol consumption on cholesterol levels?
- A. Total cholesterol
- B. Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)
- C. Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)
- D. High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***High-Density Lipoprotein (HDL)*** - Moderate alcohol consumption is known to **increase HDL cholesterol** levels. - HDL cholesterol helps in the **reverse cholesterol transport**, removing excess cholesterol from tissues and transporting it back to the liver for excretion. *Total cholesterol* - The effect of moderate alcohol on **total cholesterol** is less consistent and may vary, as it is a sum of HDL, LDL, and 20% of VLDL. - While HDL increases, other components might remain unchanged or show minimal variation, thus not making it the primary and direct effect. *Low-Density Lipoprotein (LDL)* - Moderate alcohol consumption generally has **little to no significant effect** on **LDL cholesterol** levels. - Some studies suggest a slight decrease or no change, but it is not the primary lipid affected. *Very Low-Density Lipoprotein (VLDL)* - There is generally **no significant direct effect** of moderate alcohol consumption on **VLDL cholesterol** levels. - Excessive alcohol intake, however, can elevate triglycerides, which are the main component of VLDL particles.
Question 118: What is the role of Anandamide in the human body?
- A. Opioid
- B. D2 blocker
- C. Cannabinoid neurotransmitter (Correct Answer)
- D. CCK1 antagonist
Explanation: ***Cannabinoid neurotransmitter*** - **Anandamide** is an **endogenous cannabinoid neurotransmitter** that binds to **CB1** and **CB2 receptors**. - It plays a role in **pain modulation**, **appetite stimulation**, and **memory regulation**. *Opioid* - **Opioids** bind to **opioid receptors** (mu, delta, kappa) and are known for their **analgesic** and **euphoric effects**. - Examples include **morphine** and **endorphins**, which are chemically distinct from anandamide and have different receptor targets. *CK 1 antagonist* - This option refers to a **cholecystokinin 1 (CCK1) receptor antagonist**, which would block the effects of **CCK**. - **CCK** is a hormone involved in **digestion** and **satiety**, and its role is unrelated to anandamide. *D2 blocker* - A **D2 blocker** is an agent that antagonizes the **dopamine D2 receptor**. - These are typically **antipsychotic medications** that modulate **dopamine pathways** in the brain, unrelated to the function of anandamide.
Question 119: Which immunoglobulin is known to be heat-labile?
- A. IgA
- B. IgG
- C. IgM (Correct Answer)
- D. IgE
Explanation: ***IgM*** - **IgM** is known for its **heat lability** and is readily denatured at 56°C within a few minutes. - This characteristic is due to its **pentameric structure** held together by disulfide bonds and J chains, which are sensitive to thermal denaturation. - Heat lability of IgM is clinically important in complement fixation tests and other laboratory assays where heat inactivation is performed. - IgM is the first antibody produced in primary immune response and its heat sensitivity distinguishes it from other immunoglobulins. *IgA* - **IgA** exists in monomeric (serum) and dimeric (secretory) forms and shows moderate stability to heat. - Secretory IgA is relatively stable as it needs to function in harsh mucosal environments, though not as heat-resistant as IgG. - Does not exhibit the pronounced heat lability characteristic of IgM. *IgG* - **IgG** is the most stable immunoglobulin and is highly resistant to heat denaturation. - Can withstand temperatures up to 60-70°C without significant loss of activity. - Its monomeric structure with strong intramolecular bonds provides exceptional thermal stability. - Most abundant antibody in serum and has the longest half-life. *IgE* - **IgE** is actually quite stable to heat and can withstand 56°C for extended periods. - While it has a short half-life in serum (2-3 days), this is due to receptor binding rather than heat instability. - Important in type I hypersensitivity reactions and parasitic infections. - Does not show the characteristic heat lability that defines IgM.
Question 120: All of the following are required more during lactation as compared to pregnancy, except ?
- A. Niacin
- B. Energy
- C. Iron (Correct Answer)
- D. Vitamin A
Explanation: ***Iron*** - **Iron requirements are significantly higher during pregnancy** (~27 mg/day) due to the expansion of maternal red blood cell mass, fetal development, and placental iron needs. - During lactation, iron requirement decreases to **~9-10 mg/day**, lower than in pregnancy, as **lactational amenorrhea** (absence of menstruation) reduces iron loss. - This represents the **most significant decrease** in requirement from pregnancy to lactation among the listed nutrients. *Vitamin A* - The **recommended daily allowance (RDA) for Vitamin A is higher during lactation** (~1300 μg/day) compared to pregnancy (~800 μg/day). - This increased requirement ensures **adequate transfer to breast milk** to support infant's **vision development and immune function**. *Niacin* - **Niacin requirements during lactation** (~17 mg/day) are **similar to pregnancy** (~18 mg/day). - While lactation involves increased metabolic demands, niacin requirements do not show a marked increase compared to pregnancy, unlike Vitamin A and Energy. - This option is less clearly "required more" during lactation. *Energy* - **Energy requirements are significantly higher during lactation** to fuel milk production, which is energetically demanding. - A lactating woman typically needs an **additional 500 kcal/day**, compared to ~300 kcal/day in the 2nd/3rd trimester of pregnancy.