Trauma/Emergencies — MCQs

A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after a skiing accident. The patient had been skiing down the mountain when he collided with another skier who had stopped suddenly in front of him. He is alert but complaining of pain in his chest and abdomen. He has a past medical history of intravenous drug use and peptic ulcer disease. He is a current smoker. His temperature is 97.4°F (36.3°C), blood pressure is 77/53 mmHg, pulse is 127/min, and respirations are 13/min. He has a GCS of 15 and bilateral shallow breath sounds. His abdomen is soft and distended with bruising over the epigastrium. He is moving all four extremities and has scattered lacerations on his face. His skin is cool and delayed capillary refill is present. Two large-bore IVs are placed in his antecubital fossa, and he is given 2L of normal saline. His FAST exam reveals fluid in Morison's pouch. Following the 2L normal saline, his temperature is 97.5°F (36.4°C), blood pressure is 97/62 mmHg, pulse is 115/min, and respirations are 12/min. Which of the following is the best next step in management?

A 65-year-old man comes to the physician for evaluation of severe pain in his left shoulder for several days. He did not fall or injure his shoulder. He has a history of osteoarthritis of both knees that is well-controlled with indomethacin. He spends most of his time at a retirement facility and does not do any sports. There is no family history of serious illness. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 35 years. Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows tenderness of the greater tuberosity of the left humerus. There is no swelling or erythema. The patient is unable to slowly adduct his arm after it is passively abducted to 90 degrees. External rotation is limited by pain. Subacromial injection of lidocaine does not relieve his symptoms. An x-ray of the left shoulder shows sclerosis of the acromion and humeral head. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 34-year-old man is admitted to the emergency department after a motor vehicle accident in which he sustained blunt abdominal trauma. On admission, he is conscious, has a GCS score of 15, and has normal ventilation with no signs of airway obstruction. Vitals initially are blood pressure 95/65 mmHg, heart rate 87/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. The physical exam is significant only for tenderness to palpation over the left flank. Noncontrast CT of the abdomen shows fractures of the 9th and 10th left ribs. Intravenous fluids are administered and the patient's blood pressure increases to 110/80 mm Hg. Three days later after admission, the patient suddenly complains of weakness and left upper quadrant (LUQ) pain. Vitals are blood pressure 80/50 mm Hg, heart rate 97/min, respiratory rate 18/min, temperature 36.2℃ (97.2℉) and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Prompt administration of 2L of IV fluids increases the blood pressure to 100/70 mm Hg. On physical exam, there is dullness to percussion and rebound tenderness with guarding in the LUQ. Bowel sounds are present. Raising the patient's left leg results in pain in his left shoulder. Stat hemoglobin level is 9.8 g/dL. Which of the following findings would be most likely seen if a CT scan were performed now?

A 76-year-old hypertensive man who used to smoke 20 cigarettes a day for 40 years but quit 5 years ago presents to his family physician with a painless ulcer on the sole of his left foot, located at the base of his 1st toe. He has a history of pain in his left leg that awakens him at night and is relieved by dangling his foot off the side of the bed. His wife discovered the ulcer last week while doing his usual monthly toenail trimming. On physical exam, palpation of the patient’s pulses reveals the following: Right foot Femoral 4+ Popliteal 3+ Dorsalis Pedis 2+ Posterior Tibial 1+ Left foot Femoral 4+ Popliteal 2+ Dorsalis Pedis 0 Posterior Tibial 0 Pulse detection by Doppler ultrasound revealed decreased flow in the left posterior tibial artery, but no flow could be detected in the dorsalis pedis. What is the most likely principal cause of this patient’s ulcer?

A trauma 'huddle' is called. Morphine is administered for pain. Low-flow oxygen is begun. A traumatic diaphragmatic rupture is suspected. Infusion of 0.9% saline is begun. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 66-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department 4 hours after falling and hitting her head while skiing. Initially, she refused treatment, but an hour ago she began to develop a severe headache, nausea, and right leg weakness. She has osteopenia. Her only medication is a daily multivitamin. She has no visual changes and is oriented to person, time, and place. Her temperature is 37.2°C (99°F), pulse is 72/min, respirations are 18/min and regular, and blood pressure is 128/75 mm Hg. Examination shows a 5-cm bruise on the left side of her skull. The pupils are equal, round, and reactive to light and accommodation. Muscle strength is 0/5 in her right knee and foot. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

A previously healthy 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency department 35 minutes after being involved in a high-speed motor vehicle collision in which he was an unrestrained passenger. He was ambulatory at the accident scene, with stable vital signs and no major external injuries except abrasions to both upper extremities. On arrival, he is alert and oriented. His temperature is 37.3°C (99.1°F), pulse is 88/min, respirations are 14/min, and blood pressure is 128/74 mm Hg. Abdominal examination shows ecchymosis over the upper abdomen, with tenderness to palpation over the left upper quadrant. There is no guarding or rigidity. Rectal examination is unremarkable. A CT scan of the abdomen with intravenous contrast shows a subcapsular splenic hematoma comprising 8% of the surface area, with no contrast extravasation and minimal blood in the peritoneal cavity. Which of the following is the next best step in management?

A 79-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after he noted the abrupt onset of weakness accompanied by decreased sensation on his left side. His symptoms developed rapidly, peaked within 1 minute, and began to spontaneously resolve 10 minutes later. Upon arrival in the emergency room 40 minutes after the initial onset of symptoms, they had largely resolved. The patient has essential hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and a 50 pack-year smoking history. He also had an ST-elevation myocardial infarction 3 years ago. His brain CT scan without contrast is reported as normal. Carotid duplex ultrasonography reveals 90% stenosis of the right internal carotid. His transthoracic echocardiogram does not reveal any intracardiac abnormalities. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for this patient's condition?

An unconscious middle-aged man is brought to the emergency department. He is actively bleeding from the rectum. He has no past medical history. At the hospital, his pulse is 110/min, the blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, the respirations are 26/min, and the oxygen saturation is 96% at room air. His extremities are cold. Resuscitation is started with IV fluids and cross-matched blood arranged. His vitals are stabilized after resuscitation and blood transfusion. His hemoglobin is 7.6 g/dL, hematocrit is 30%, BUN is 33 mg/dL, and PT/aPTT is within normal limits. A nasogastric tube is inserted, which drains bile without blood. Rectal examination and proctoscopy reveal massive active bleeding, without any obvious hemorrhoids or fissure. The physician estimates the rate of bleeding at 2-3 mL/min. What is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?

A 25-year-old man comes to the emergency department with right knee pain. He was playing soccer when an opposing player tackled him from the side and they both fell down. He immediately heard a popping sound and felt severe pain in his right knee that prevented him from standing or walking. On physical examination, his right knee is swollen and there is local tenderness, mostly at the medial aspect. External rotation of the right knee elicits a significant sharp pain with a locking sensation. Which of the following structures is most likely injured?