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A 67-year-old woman with a history of atrial fibrillation on warfarin presents with sudden-onset severe periumbilical pain that is disproportionate to her abdominal tenderness on examination. She has nausea and one episode of vomiting. Vital signs: BP 110/72 mmHg, HR 108 bpm, RR 18/min, temperature 37.2°C. Abdominal examination reveals mild diffuse tenderness without rigidity or guarding. Bowel sounds are present. INR is 3.1. CT abdomen with contrast demonstrates occlusion of the superior mesenteric artery with segmental bowel wall thickening and pneumatosis intestinalis, consistent with established bowel infarction. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

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