Trauma/Emergencies Practice Questions

Q: A 7-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by his parents in severe pain. They state that he fell on his outstretched right arm while playing with his friends. He is unable to move his right arm which is being supported by his left. On exam, his vitals are normal. His right extremity reveals normal pulses without swelling in any compartments, but there is crepitus above the elbow upon movement. The child is able to flex and extend his wrist, but this is limited by pain. The child has decreased sensation along his thumb and is unable to make the "OK" sign with his thumb and index finger. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Supracondylar humerus fracture. ***Supracondylar humerus fracture*** - The classic presentation of a **fall on an outstretched arm** with **crepitus above the elbow** is highly indicative of a supracondylar humerus fracture. - **Decreased sensation along the thumb** and inability to make an **"OK" sign** points to **anterior interosseous nerve (AIN)** palsy, a common complication of this fracture type due to compression or injury. *Scaphoid fracture* - This fracture typically presents with **pain in the anatomical snuffbox** and occurs at the wrist, not above the elbow. - While it can result from a fall on an outstretched hand, it does not explain the crepitus above the elbow or the specific nerve palsy described. *Distal ulnar fracture* - This injury would cause pain and swelling at the **distal forearm/wrist**, not crepitus above the elbow. - Nerve involvement, if present, would typically affect the **ulnar nerve**, not the anterior interosseous nerve. *Distal radius fracture* - Also known as a **Colles fracture** when dorsal displacement is present, this injury occurs at the wrist and presents with pain and deformity there. - It does not account for the crepitus above the elbow or the specific AIN palsy symptoms. *Midhumerus fracture* - While a midhumerus fracture can occur from a fall on an outstretched arm and cause crepitus, it would be located in the **middle third of the upper arm**, not specifically above the elbow joint. - The specific AIN palsy is less commonly associated with mid-shaft humeral fractures, which are more likely to involve the **radial nerve**.

Q: A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain and a burning sensation. He accidentally drank a cup of fluid at his construction site 2 hours ago. The liquid was later found to contain lye. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 100/57 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 21/min, pulse is 84/min, and temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F). The patient is sent immediately to the radiology department. The CT scan shows air in the mediastinum, and a contrast swallow study confirms the likely diagnosis. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?

Surgical repair. ***Surgical repair*** - The presence of **mediastinal air** on CT scan and confirmation of **esophageal perforation** by contrast swallow study indicate a surgical emergency. - **Emergency surgical repair** is crucial to prevent widespread mediastinitis, sepsis, and potential mortality from corrosive ingestion. *Ceftriaxone* - While **antibiotics** like Ceftriaxone might be used as adjuncts to prevent infection, they are not the primary treatment for an established esophageal perforation. - Antibiotics alone will not address the structural defect or contain the leakage of corrosive material into the mediastinum. *Oral antidote* - For corrosive ingestions, administering an **oral antidote** is contraindicated as it can worsen tissue damage or induce vomiting, leading to further esophageal injury. - The immediate priority is managing the perforation, not neutralizing the corrosive agent internally. *Dexamethasone* - **Corticosteroids** like dexamethasone are sometimes considered in the management of corrosive ingestions to reduce stricture formation, but their role is controversial and they are not the initial treatment for an acute perforation. - In an active perforation, corticosteroids would not address the immediate life-threatening issue of mediastinal contamination. *Nasogastric lavage* - **Nasogastric lavage** is contraindicated in corrosive ingestions, especially with suspected or confirmed perforation. - Passing a tube could further injure the already damaged tissue and increase the risk of perforation or exacerbate an existing one.

Q: A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasing pain and swelling in her right foot for the past 2 weeks. Initially, the pain was intermittent but it is now constant and she describes it as 8 out of 10 in intensity. She has not had any trauma to the foot or any previous problems with her joints. The pain has not allowed her to continue training for an upcoming marathon. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. She is a model and has to regularly wear stilettos for fashion shows. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows swelling of the right forefoot. There is tenderness to palpation over the fifth metatarsal shaft. Pushing the fifth toe inwards produces pain. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Stress fracture. ***Stress fracture*** - The patient's presentation of worsening **forefoot pain** with activity (marathon training), tenderness over the **fifth metatarsal shaft**, and pain with pushing the fifth toe inwards strongly suggest a stress fracture. She is at high risk due to her frequent use of **stilettos** and intense physical activity. - **Stress fractures** often present with insidious onset of pain that worsens with activity and improves with rest, and localized tenderness over the affected bone. *Acute osteomyelitis* - This typically involves signs of **infection** such as fever, warmth, and systemic symptoms, which are not present in this patient. - While it can cause pain and swelling, the lack of an obvious portal of entry for infection and the activity-related nature of her pain make it less likely. *Morton's neuroma* - This condition is characterized by **neuropathic pain** in the forefoot, often described as burning or tingling, typically between the third and fourth toes. - The pain is usually exacerbated by tight shoes and relieved by removing shoes, but localized tenderness over a metatarsal shaft is not typical. *Freiberg disease* - This is an **osteochondrosis** that primarily affects the **second metatarsal head**, causing pain and stiffness, especially during weight-bearing. - The patient's pain is localized to the **fifth metatarsal shaft**, making Freiberg disease less likely. *Plantar fasciitis* - This condition causes pain on the **bottom of the heel**, particularly with the first steps in the morning or after a period of rest. - The current patient's pain is located in the **forefoot** and on a metatarsal shaft, which is inconsistent with plantar fasciitis.

Q: A 40-year-old man presents with a painless firm mass in the right breast. Examination shows retraction of the nipple and the skin is fixed to the underlying mass. The axillary nodes are palpable. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the above condition?

Lobular cancer is the most common breast cancer in males. ***Lobular cancer is the most common breast cancer in males*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer. The most common type of breast cancer in males is **invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC)**, accounting for about 80-90% of cases. - **Invasive lobular carcinoma** is rare in men because men have very few lobules in their breast tissue. *Gynecomastia may be caused by certain medications* - This statement is **TRUE**. Medications such as spironolactone, cimetidine, finasteride, antipsychotics, and anabolic steroids can cause gynecomastia. - However, the clinical presentation described (firm mass, nipple retraction, skin fixation, axillary nodes) is consistent with **malignancy**, not gynecomastia. *BRCA2 mutations are associated with increased risk* - This statement is **TRUE**. Male breast cancer is strongly associated with **BRCA2 mutations** (and less commonly BRCA1), which are hereditary. - Men with BRCA2 mutations have a 5-10% lifetime risk of developing breast cancer, compared to less than 0.1% in the general male population. *These are positive for estrogen receptor* - This statement is **TRUE**. A vast majority (over 90%) of male breast cancers are **estrogen receptor (ER) positive**, which makes them responsive to endocrine therapy. - This high rate of ER positivity is even greater than in female breast cancers. *Endocrine therapy plays an important role in treatment* - This statement is **TRUE**. Given the high prevalence of ER positivity (over 90%), endocrine therapy such as **tamoxifen** or aromatase inhibitors is a cornerstone of treatment for male breast cancer. - Endocrine therapy is used in both adjuvant and metastatic settings for hormone receptor-positive disease.

Q: A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department by ambulance after being involved in a fight. On arrival, there is obvious trauma to his face and neck, and his mouth is full of blood. Seconds after suctioning the blood, his mouth rapidly fills up with blood again. As a result, he is unable to speak to you. An attempt at direct laryngoscopy fails as a result of his injuries. His vital signs are pulse 102/min, blood pressure 110/75 mmHg, and O2 saturation 97%. Which of the following is indicated at this time?

Cricothyroidotomy. ***Cricothyroidotomy*** - The patient has an actively bleeding airway that cannot be managed with suction, and **endotracheal intubation** failed, indicating a need for an **emergency surgical airway**. - **Cricothyroidotomy** is the most rapid and effective method to establish a definitive airway in such a circumstance, bypassing the upper airway obstruction caused by blood and trauma. *Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)* - **CPAP** provides positive pressure ventilation and is used for respiratory support in conditions like **sleep apnea** or **congestive heart failure**, not for airway obstruction due to trauma and bleeding. - It would not address the actively bleeding airway or the inability to ventilate, and could potentially worsen the situation by pushing blood further into the lungs. *Cardiopulmonary resuscitation* - **CPR** is indicated for **cardiac arrest** or profound bradypnea/apnea, which is not the primary issue here, as the patient still has a pulse and blood pressure. - While the patient's airway is compromised, his vital signs do not indicate the need for chest compressions or rescue breaths as the initial intervention. *Nasogastric tube* - A **nasogastric tube** is used for **gastric decompression** or **enteral feeding**, and it does not play a role in securing an airway in an emergency situation. - Attempting to place an NG tube would divert critical time and resources away from establishing a patent airway. *Endotracheal intubation* - **Endotracheal intubation** was already attempted and **failed** due to the patient's severe facial and neck trauma, and the continuous bleeding. - This option is therefore not viable, and a surgical airway is required as the next step.

Q: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of right wrist pain after a fall from a ladder. Physical examination shows decreased grip strength and tenderness between the tendons of extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. X-ray of the right wrist shows no abnormalities. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?

Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone. ***Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone*** - The patient's symptoms (wrist pain after a fall, decreased grip strength, and tenderness in the anatomical snuffbox—between the **extensor pollicis longus** and **extensor pollicis brevis** tendons) are classic for a **scaphoid fracture**. - X-rays may initially be normal, and the **scaphoid's tenuous blood supply**, primarily from its distal pole, makes its proximal pole particularly vulnerable to **avascular necrosis** following a fracture. *Hypesthesia of the hypothenar eminence* - This symptom is related to injury to the **ulnar nerve**, which typically affects the little finger and ulnar half of the ring finger, as well as the hypothenar eminence. - A scaphoid fracture does not directly impact the **ulnar nerve** distribution in this manner. *Paralysis of the abductor pollicis brevis muscle* - The **abductor pollicis brevis** muscle is innervated by the **median nerve**. - Injury to the median nerve would be required for its paralysis, which is not directly associated with a scaphoid fracture. *Contracture of the palmar aponeurosis* - This condition is known as **Dupuytren's contracture**, a painless progressive fibrosis of the **palmar aponeurosis**. - It results in flexion deformities of the digits and is not caused by acute trauma like a fall, nor is it a complication of a scaphoid fracture. *Osteoarthritis of the radiocarpal joint* - While wrist trauma can predispose to **osteoarthritis** in the long term, it typically develops over many years. - Avascular necrosis is a more immediate and severe complication following a **scaphoid fracture**, and is a distinct pathology from general osteoarthritis of the radiocarpal joint.

Q: A 17-year-old male presents to your office with right knee pain. He is the quarterback of his high school football team and developed the knee pain after being tackled in last night's game. He states he was running with the ball and was hit on the lateral aspect of his right knee while his right foot was planted. Now, he is tender to palpation over the medial knee and unable to bear full weight on the right lower extremity. A joint effusion is present and arthrocentesis yields 50 cc's of clear fluid. Which of the following exam maneuvers is most likely to demonstrate ligamentous laxity?

Valgus stress test. ***Valgus stress test*** - The patient's presentation with a lateral blow to the knee while the foot was planted, tenderness over the **medial knee**, and an effusion strongly suggests an injury to the **medial collateral ligament (MCL)**. - The **valgus stress test** assesses the integrity of the MCL by applying an outward (valgus) force to the knee, checking for excessive gapping on the medial side. *Pivot shift test* - The **pivot shift test** primarily assesses for **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)** instability, particularly rotational laxity of the tibia on the femur. - While an ACL injury is possible with this mechanism, the specific tenderness to palpation medially points more directly to an MCL injury. *Varus stress test* - The **varus stress test** evaluates the integrity of the **lateral collateral ligament (LCL)** by applying an inward (varus) force to the knee. - This patient's mechanism of injury (lateral blow) and medial tenderness are inconsistent with an isolated LCL injury. *Anterior drawer test* - The **anterior drawer test** assesses the integrity of the **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)** by pulling the tibia forward on the femur. - While ACL injury is a concern with knee trauma, the focal tenderness on the medial side is not directly evaluated by this test. *Lachman's test* - **Lachman's test** is considered the most reliable clinical test for evaluating the integrity of the **anterior cruciate ligament (ACL)**, even in the acute setting with an effusion. - However, the primary findings of medial tenderness after a lateral blow specifically point to an MCL injury, which is best assessed by the valgus stress test.

Q: A previously healthy 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 15 minutes after sustaining an injury to his right hand. His mother says that she was cleaning the bathroom when he accidentally knocked over the drain cleaner bottle and spilled the liquid onto his hand. On arrival, he is crying and holding his right hand in a flexed position. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Examination of the right hand shows a 4 x 4 cm area of reddened, blistered skin. The area is very tender to light touch. His ability to flex and extend the right hand are diminished. Radial pulses are palpable. Capillary refill time is less than 3 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Irrigate with water. ***Irrigate with water*** - The immediate and most crucial step for a **chemical burn** is copious **irrigation with water** to remove the offending agent and prevent further tissue damage. - This action minimizes the duration of contact between the **corrosive substance** and the skin, halting the chemical reaction. *Apply split-thickness skin graft* - A **skin graft** is a surgical procedure typically reserved for **deep burns** and is not the immediate first step for chemical exposure. - It would be considered later in management if the burn resulted in **full-thickness tissue loss** and incomplete wound healing. *Apply silver sulfadiazine* - **Silver sulfadiazine** is an antimicrobial cream used to prevent infection in **thermal burns** after initial wound care. - It is not indicated as the first line of treatment for a **chemical burn** and would not remove the chemical agent from the skin. *Apply mineral oil* - Applying **mineral oil** is not the appropriate initial treatment for a **chemical burn** and could potentially trap the chemical, worsening the injury. - The priority is to dilute and remove the chemical, which mineral oil cannot do effectively. *Perform escharotomy* - An **escharotomy** is a surgical incision through burn eschar used to relieve pressure in **circumferential full-thickness burns** that compromise circulation. - This procedure is not indicated as the initial management for a **chemical burn** and is only considered for severe, deep burns with vascular compromise.

Q: A 60-year-old man presents with pain, swelling, and a purulent discharge from his left foot. He says that the symptoms began 7 days ago with mild pain and swelling on the medial side of his left foot, but have progressively worsened. He states that there has been a foul-smelling discharge for the past 2 days. The medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus that was diagnosed 10 years ago and is poorly managed, and refractory peripheral artery disease that failed revascularization 6 months ago. The current medications include aspirin (81 mg orally daily) and metformin (500 mg orally twice daily). He has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit 6 months ago. The family history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus in both parents and his father died of a myocardial infarction at 50 years of age. His temperature is 38.9°C (102°F); blood pressure 90/65 mm Hg; pulse 102/min; respiratory rate 22/min; and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. On physical examination, he appears ill and diaphoretic. The skin is flushed and moist. There is 2+ pitting edema of the left foot with blistering and black discoloration (see picture). The lower legs are hairless and the lower extremity peripheral pulses are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory tests are pending. Blood cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following findings is the strongest indication for amputation of the left lower extremity in this patient?

Presence of wet gangrene. ***Presence of wet gangrene*** - The presence of **wet gangrene**, evidenced by black discoloration, blistering, and purulent discharge, indicates widespread tissue necrosis and severe infection. - Wet gangrene progresses rapidly and is associated with a high risk of **sepsis** and mortality, often necessitating amputation to save the patient's life. *Positive blood cultures* - While positive blood cultures for **Staphylococcus aureus** indicate a serious infection, they do not, by themselves, directly necessitate amputation. - They guide antibiotic therapy but do not confirm the extent of tissue damage (e.g., gangrene) that mandates amputation. *Diminished peripheral pulses* - **Diminished peripheral pulses** (1+ bilaterally) suggest peripheral artery disease, which contributes to poor wound healing and infection risk. - However, poor circulation alone is not an immediate indication for amputation; the presence of irreversible tissue death (gangrene) is the critical factor. *Poorly managed blood glucose* - **Poorly managed diabetes** is a significant risk factor for peripheral neuropathy, impaired immunity, and vascular disease, predisposing to foot infections. - While it contributes to the overall severity and complexity of the patient's condition, it is not an acute indication for amputation. *Smoking history* - A **20-pack-year smoking history** contributes to vascular disease and impaired wound healing, increasing the risk for foot complications. - This is a long-term risk factor and contributor to the patient's overall health status, but not an immediate surgical indication for amputation itself.

Question 1

A 7-year-old child is brought to the emergency room by his parents in severe pain. They state that he fell on his outstretched right arm while playing with his friends. He is unable to move his right arm which is being supported by his left. On exam, his vitals are normal. His right extremity reveals normal pulses without swelling in any compartments, but there is crepitus above the elbow upon movement. The child is able to flex and extend his wrist, but this is limited by pain. The child has decreased sensation along his thumb and is unable to make the "OK" sign with his thumb and index finger. What is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Supracondylar humerus fracture

Answer

Scaphoid fracture

Answer

Distal ulnar fracture

Answer

Distal radius fracture

Answer

Midhumerus fracture

Question 2

A 56-year-old man presents to the emergency department with severe chest pain and a burning sensation. He accidentally drank a cup of fluid at his construction site 2 hours ago. The liquid was later found to contain lye. On physical examination, his blood pressure is 100/57 mm Hg, respiratory rate is 21/min, pulse is 84/min, and temperature is 37.7°C (99.9°F). The patient is sent immediately to the radiology department. The CT scan shows air in the mediastinum, and a contrast swallow study confirms the likely diagnosis. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient’s condition?

Accepted Answer

Surgical repair

Answer

Ceftriaxone

Answer

Oral antidote

Answer

Dexamethasone

Answer

Nasogastric lavage

Question 3

A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician because of increasing pain and swelling in her right foot for the past 2 weeks. Initially, the pain was intermittent but it is now constant and she describes it as 8 out of 10 in intensity. She has not had any trauma to the foot or any previous problems with her joints. The pain has not allowed her to continue training for an upcoming marathon. Her only medication is an oral contraceptive. She is a model and has to regularly wear stilettos for fashion shows. She appears healthy. Vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows swelling of the right forefoot. There is tenderness to palpation over the fifth metatarsal shaft. Pushing the fifth toe inwards produces pain. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

Accepted Answer

Stress fracture

Answer

Acute osteomyelitis

Answer

Morton's neuroma

Answer

Freiberg disease

Answer

Plantar fasciitis

Question 4

A 40-year-old man presents with a painless firm mass in the right breast. Examination shows retraction of the nipple and the skin is fixed to the underlying mass. The axillary nodes are palpable. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the above condition?

Accepted Answer

Lobular cancer is the most common breast cancer in males

Answer

BRCA2 mutations are associated with increased risk

Answer

These are positive for estrogen receptor

Answer

Endocrine therapy plays an important role in treatment

Answer

Gynecomastia may be caused by certain medications

Question 5

A 34-year-old man presents to the emergency department by ambulance after being involved in a fight. On arrival, there is obvious trauma to his face and neck, and his mouth is full of blood. Seconds after suctioning the blood, his mouth rapidly fills up with blood again. As a result, he is unable to speak to you. An attempt at direct laryngoscopy fails as a result of his injuries. His vital signs are pulse 102/min, blood pressure 110/75 mmHg, and O2 saturation 97%. Which of the following is indicated at this time?

Accepted Answer

Cricothyroidotomy

Answer

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

Answer

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation

Answer

Nasogastric tube

Answer

Endotracheal intubation

Question 6

A 25-year-old man comes to the physician because of right wrist pain after a fall from a ladder. Physical examination shows decreased grip strength and tenderness between the tendons of extensor pollicis longus and extensor pollicis brevis. X-ray of the right wrist shows no abnormalities. This patient is at increased risk for which of the following complications?

Accepted Answer

Avascular necrosis of the scaphoid bone

Answer

Hypesthesia of the hypothenar eminence

Answer

Paralysis of the abductor pollicis brevis muscle

Answer

Contracture of the palmar aponeurosis

Answer

Osteoarthritis of the radiocarpal joint

Question 7

A 17-year-old male presents to your office with right knee pain. He is the quarterback of his high school football team and developed the knee pain after being tackled in last night's game. He states he was running with the ball and was hit on the lateral aspect of his right knee while his right foot was planted. Now, he is tender to palpation over the medial knee and unable to bear full weight on the right lower extremity. A joint effusion is present and arthrocentesis yields 50 cc's of clear fluid. Which of the following exam maneuvers is most likely to demonstrate ligamentous laxity?

Accepted Answer

Valgus stress test

Answer

Pivot shift test

Answer

Varus stress test

Answer

Anterior drawer test

Answer

Lachman's test

Question 8

A previously healthy 5-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department 15 minutes after sustaining an injury to his right hand. His mother says that she was cleaning the bathroom when he accidentally knocked over the drain cleaner bottle and spilled the liquid onto his hand. On arrival, he is crying and holding his right hand in a flexed position. His temperature is 37.7°C (99.8°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 25/min, and blood pressure is 105/65 mm Hg. Examination of the right hand shows a 4 x 4 cm area of reddened, blistered skin. The area is very tender to light touch. His ability to flex and extend the right hand are diminished. Radial pulses are palpable. Capillary refill time is less than 3 seconds. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

Accepted Answer

Irrigate with water

Answer

Apply split-thickness skin graft

Answer

Apply silver sulfadiazine

Answer

Apply mineral oil

Answer

Perform escharotomy

Question 9

A 47-year-old man is brought to the emergency room by his wife. She states that they were having dinner at a restaurant when the patient suddenly became out of breath. His past medical history is irrelevant but has a 20-year pack smoking history. On evaluation, the patient is alert and verbally responsive but in moderate respiratory distress. His temperature is 37°C (98.6°F), blood pressure is 85/56 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min, and respirations are 20/min. His oxygen saturation is 88% on 2L nasal cannula. An oropharyngeal examination is unremarkable. The trachea is deviated to the left. Cardiopulmonary examination reveals decreased breath sounds on the right lower lung field with nondistended neck veins. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Urgent needle decompression

Answer

D-dimer levels

Answer

Nebulization with albuterol

Answer

Chest X-ray

Answer

Heimlich maneuver

Question 10

A 60-year-old man presents with pain, swelling, and a purulent discharge from his left foot. He says that the symptoms began 7 days ago with mild pain and swelling on the medial side of his left foot, but have progressively worsened. He states that there has been a foul-smelling discharge for the past 2 days. The medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus that was diagnosed 10 years ago and is poorly managed, and refractory peripheral artery disease that failed revascularization 6 months ago. The current medications include aspirin (81 mg orally daily) and metformin (500 mg orally twice daily). He has a 20-pack-year smoking history but quit 6 months ago. The family history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus in both parents and his father died of a myocardial infarction at 50 years of age. His temperature is 38.9°C (102°F); blood pressure 90/65 mm Hg; pulse 102/min; respiratory rate 22/min; and oxygen saturation 99% on room air. On physical examination, he appears ill and diaphoretic. The skin is flushed and moist. There is 2+ pitting edema of the left foot with blistering and black discoloration (see picture). The lower legs are hairless and the lower extremity peripheral pulses are 1+ bilaterally. Laboratory tests are pending. Blood cultures are positive for Staphylococcus aureus. Which of the following findings is the strongest indication for amputation of the left lower extremity in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Presence of wet gangrene

Answer

Positive blood cultures

Answer

Diminished peripheral pulses

Answer

Poorly managed blood glucose

Answer

Smoking history

Trauma/Emergencies — MCQs

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