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A 59-year-old man presents to his primary care provider complaining of bilateral calf cramping with walking for the past 7 months. His pain goes away when he stops walking; however, his condition affects his work as a mail carrier. His medical history is remarkable for type 2 diabetes mellitus, hyperlipidemia, and 25-pack-year smoking history. His ankle-brachial index (ABI) is found to be 0.70. The patient is diagnosed with mild to moderate peripheral artery disease. A supervised exercise program for 3 months, aspirin, and cilostazol are started. Which of the following is the best next step if the patient has no improvement?
A 70-year-old man presents for his annual check-up. He says he feels well except for occasional abdominal pain. He describes the pain as 4/10–5/10 in intensity, diffusely localized to the periumbilical and epigastric regions, radiating to the groin. The pain occurs 1–2 times a month and always subsides on its own. The patient denies any recent history of fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, change in body weight, or change in bowel and/or bladder habits. His past medical history is significant for hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and peripheral vascular disease, managed with lisinopril and simvastatin. The patient reports a 40-pack-year smoking history and 1–2 alcoholic drinks a day. The blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg and the pulse is 80/min. Peripheral pulses are 2+ bilaterally in all extremities. Abdominal exam reveals a bruit in the epigastric region along with mild tenderness to palpation with no rebound or guarding. There is also a pulsatile abdominal mass felt on deep palpation at the junction of the periumbilical and the suprapubic regions. The remainder of the physical exam is normal. Laboratory studies show: Serum total cholesterol 175 mg/dL Serum total bilirubin 1 mg/dL Serum amylase 25 U/L Serum alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 U/L Serum aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 16 U/L Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A 64-year-old woman has progressively worsening abdominal pain 5 hours after an open valve replacement with cardiopulmonary bypass. The pain is crampy and associated with an urge to defecate. The patient reports having had 2 bloody bowel movements in the last hour. Her operation was complicated by significant intraoperative blood loss, which prolonged the operation and necessitated 2 transfusions of red blood cells. She has hypercholesterolemia and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient received prophylactic perioperative antibiotics and opioid pain management during recovery. Her temperature is 37.9°C (98.9°F), pulse is 95/min, and blood pressure is 115/69 mm Hg. Examination shows a soft abdomen with mild tenderness to palpation in the left quadrants but no rebound tenderness or guarding. Bowel sounds are decreased. Rectal examination shows blood on the examining finger. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of this patient's symptoms?
A 28-year-old woman comes to the physician with a history of bright red blood in her stools for 3 days. She has defecated once per day. She does not have fever, pain on defecation, or abdominal pain. She was treated for a urinary tract infection with levofloxacin around 3 months ago. Menses occur at regular intervals of 28–30 days and lasts 3–4 days. Her father died of colon cancer 4 years ago. Her only medication is an iron supplement. She is 162 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 101.2 kg (223 lbs); BMI is 38.3 kg/m2. Her temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 89/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Rectal examination shows anal skin tags. Anoscopy shows multiple enlarged bluish veins above the dentate line at 7 and 11 o'clock positions. When asked to exhale through a closed nostril a mass prolapses but spontaneously reduces when breathing normally. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 17-year-old girl is admitted to the emergency department with severe retrosternal chest pain. The pain began suddenly after an episode of self-induced vomiting following a large meal. The patient’s parents say that she is very restricted in the foods she eats and induces vomiting frequently after meals. Vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 100/60 mm Hg, heart rate 98/min, respiratory rate 14/min, and temperature 37.9℃ (100.2℉). The patient is pale and in severe distress. Lungs are clear to auscultation. On cardiac examination, a crunching, raspy sound is auscultated over the precordium that is synchronous with the heartbeat. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Which of the following tests would most likely confirm the diagnosis in this patient?
A 39-year-old man presents with painless swelling of the right testis and a sensation of heaviness. The physical examination revealed an intra-testicular solid mass that could not be felt separately from the testis. After a thorough evaluation, he was diagnosed with testicular seminoma. Which of the following group of lymph nodes are most likely involved?
A 17-year-old girl comes to the physician for a scheduled colonoscopy. She was diagnosed with familial adenomatous polyposis at the age of 13 years. Last year, her flexible sigmoidoscopy showed 12 adenomatous polyps (< 6 mm) that were removed endoscopically. Her father and her paternal grandmother were diagnosed with colon cancer at the age of 37 and 39 years, respectively. The patient appears nervous but otherwise well. Her vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows no abnormalities. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes, urea nitrogen, and creatinine are within the reference range. A colonoscopy shows hundreds of diffuse 4–9 mm adenomatous polyps covering the colon and > 30 rectal adenomas. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A 45-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain for the past day. The pain is situated in the right upper quadrant, colicky, 8/10, and radiates to the tip of the right shoulder with no aggravating or relieving factors. The pain is associated with nausea but no vomiting. She tried to take over-the-counter antacids which relieved her pain to a certain extent, but not entirely. She does not smoke cigarettes or drink alcohol. She has no past medical illness. Her father died of pancreatic cancer at the age of 75, and her mother has diabetes controlled with medications. Temperature is 38°C (100.4°F), blood pressure is 125/89 mm Hg, pulse is 104/min, respiratory rate is 20/min, and BMI is 29 kg/m2. On abdominal examination, her abdomen is tender to shallow and deep palpation of the right upper quadrant. Laboratory test Complete blood count Hemoglobin 13 g/dL WBC 15,500/mm3 Platelets 145,000/mm3 Basic metabolic panel Serum Na+ 137 mEq/L Serum K+ 3.6 mEq/L Serum Cl- 95 mEq/L Serum HCO3- 25 mEq/L BUN 10 mg/dL Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL Liver function test Total bilirubin 1.3 mg/dL AST 52 U/L ALT 60 U/L Ultrasonography of the abdomen shows normal findings. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
Three days after undergoing an open cholecystectomy, a 73-year-old man has fever and abdominal pain. He has hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. He had smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years but quit 1 year ago. He does not drink alcohol. Prior to admission to the hospital, his medications included lisinopril, metformin, ipratropium, and tamsulosin. He appears acutely ill and lethargic. His temperature is 39.5°C (103.1°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 110/84 mm Hg. He is oriented only to person. Examination shows a 10-cm subcostal incision that appears dry and non-erythematous. Scattered expiratory wheezing is heard throughout both lung fields. His abdomen is distended with tenderness to palpation over the lower quadrants. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 10.1 g/dl Leukocyte count 19,000/mm3 Serum Glucose 180 mg/dl Urea Nitrogen 25 mg/dl Creatinine 1.2 mg/dl Lactic acid 2.5 mEq/L (N = 0.5 - 2.2 mEq/L) Urine Protein 1+ RBC 1–2/hpf WBC 32–38/hpf Which of the following is the most likely underlying mechanism of this patient's current condition?
A 58-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of worsening upper abdominal pain. She reports nausea and vomiting, and is unable to tolerate oral intake. She appears uncomfortable. Her temperature is 38.1°C (100.6°F), pulse is 92/min, respirations are 18/min, and blood pressure is 132/85 mm Hg. Examination shows yellowish discoloration of her sclera. Her abdomen is tender in the right upper quadrant. There is no abdominal distention or organomegaly. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 13 g/dL Leukocyte count 16,000/mm3 Serum Urea nitrogen 25 mg/dL Creatinine 2 mg/dL Alkaline phosphatase 432 U/L Alanine aminotransferase 196 U/L Aspartate transaminase 207 U/L Bilirubin Total 3.8 mg/dL Direct 2.7 mg/dL Lipase 82 U/L (N = 14–280) Ultrasound of the right upper quadrant shows dilated intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts and multiple hyperechoic spheres within the gallbladder. The pancreas is not well visualized. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and antibiotic therapy with ceftriaxone and metronidazole is begun. Twelve hours later, the patient appears acutely ill and is not oriented to time. Her temperature is 39.1°C (102.4°F), pulse is 105/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 112/82 mm Hg. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
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