Abdominal emergencies — MCQs

A 51-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of upper abdominal pain for the last several hours. He says that the pain travels to his back and is less severe when he leans forward. He is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis following enzyme analysis and CT scan of the abdomen and is subsequently managed in intensive care unit (ICU) with IV fluids, analgesics, nasogastric decompression, and supportive therapy. He recovers quickly and is discharged within a week. However, after 5 weeks, the patient develops projectile vomiting containing food but no bile. Physical examination shows visible peristalsis from left to right in the upper abdomen. A repeat CT scan is done. Which of the following is the next best step in the management of this patient?

A 72-year-old man presents to his primary care physician complaining of pain and bulging in his groin. He is otherwise healthy and has never had surgery. He is referred to a general surgeon, and is scheduled for an elective hernia repair the following week. On closer inspection in the operating room, the surgeon notes a hernia sac that protrudes medial to the inferior epigastric vessels through a weakness in the posterior wall of the inguinal canal. Which of the following accurately describes this patient's condition?

A 65-year-old obese female presents to the emergency room complaining of severe abdominal pain. She reports pain localized to the epigastrium that radiates to the right scapula. The pain occurred suddenly after a fast food meal with her grandchildren. Her temperature is 100.9°F (38.2°C), blood pressure is 140/85 mmHg, pulse is 108/min, and respirations are 20/min. On examination, she demonstrates tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium. She experiences inspiratory arrest during deep palpation of the right upper quadrant but this exam finding is not present on the left upper quadrant. A blockage at which of the following locations is most likely causing this patient’s symptoms?

A 37-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain. She reports that the pain is not new and usually starts within half an hour of eating a meal. The pain has been previously diagnosed as biliary colic, and she underwent a cholecystectomy three months ago for symptomatic biliary colic. Her liver reportedly looked normal at that time. The patient dates the onset of these episodes to shortly after she underwent a sleeve gastrectomy several years ago, and the episodes were more severe immediately following that surgery. Her postsurgical course was otherwise uncomplicated, and she has lost fifty pounds since then. She has a past medical history of hypertension, hyperlipidemia, diabetes mellitus, osteoarthritis, and obesity. She denies alcohol or tobacco use. Her home medications are hydrochlorothiazide, enalapril, atorvastatin, and vitamin supplements. RUQ ultrasound reveals a surgically absent gallbladder and a dilated common bile duct without evidence of stones. Magnetic resonance cholangiopancreatography (MRCP) shows no evidence of biliary compression or obstruction, and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) shows no evidence of biliary stones or sludge. Laboratory tests are performed which reveal the following: ALT: 47 U/L AST: 56 U/L Alkaline phosphatase: 165 U/L Total bilirubin: 1.6 mg/dL Amylase: 135 U/L Lipase: 160 U/L Which of the following is definitive treatment of this patient's condition?

A 57-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 2-day history of fever and right upper quadrant abdominal pain. Examination shows jaundice. Ultrasonography of the abdomen shows cholelithiasis and marked dilation of the biliary duct. An ERCP is performed and reveals pus with multiple brown concrements draining from the common bile duct. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause of the patient's findings?

A 51-year-old man with a recent diagnosis of peptic ulcer disease currently treated with an oral proton pump inhibitor twice daily presents to the urgent care center complaining of acute abdominal pain which began suddenly less than 2 hours ago. On physical exam, you find his abdomen to be mildly distended, diffusely tender to palpation, and positive for rebound tenderness. Given the following options, what is the next best step in patient management?

A 45-year-old woman comes to the office with a 2-week history of rectal bleeding that occurs every day with her bowel movements. She denies any pain during defecation. Apart from this, she does not have any other complaints. Her past medical history is insignificant except for 5 normal vaginal deliveries. Her vitals are a heart rate of 72/min, a respiratory rate of 15/min, a temperature of 36.7°C (98.1°F), and a blood pressure of 115/85 mm Hg. On rectovaginal examination, there is a palpable, non-tender, prolapsed mass that can be pushed back by the examiner's finger into the anal sphincter. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 63-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of pain in his left groin for the past hour. The pain began soon after he returned from a walk. He describes it as 8 out of 10 in intensity and vomited once on the way to the hospital. He has had a swelling of the left groin for the past 2 months. He has chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and hypertension. Current medications include amlodipine, albuterol inhaler, and a salmeterol-fluticasone inhaler. He appears uncomfortable. His temperature is 37.4°C (99.3°F), pulse is 101/min, and blood pressure is 126/84 mm Hg. Examination shows a tender bulge on the left side above the inguinal ligament that extends into the left scrotum; lying down or applying external force does not reduce the swelling. Coughing does not make the swelling bulge further. There is no erythema. The abdomen is distended. Bowel sounds are hyperactive. Scattered rhonchi are heard throughout both lung fields. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?