Abdominal emergencies — MCQs

A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 3-day history of left flank pain. The patient has had two episodes of urolithiasis during the last year. He initially had pain with urination that improved with oxycodone. Over the past day, the pain has worsened and he has additionally developed fever and chills. He has hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. He has smoked one pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years. He does not drink alcohol. His current medications include metformin and lisinopril. The patient appears ill and uncomfortable. His temperature is 39.1°C (102.3°F), pulse is 108/min, respirations are 22/min, and blood pressure is 90/62 mm Hg. The lungs are clear to auscultation. Cardiac examination shows no murmurs, rubs, or gallops. Examination of the back shows left costovertebral angle tenderness. Physical and neurologic examinations show no other abnormalities. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin 14.2 g/dL Leukocyte count 13,900/mm3 Hemoglobin A1c 8.2% Serum Na+ 138 mEq/L K+ 3.8 mEq/L Cl- 98 mEq/L Calcium 9.3 mg/dL Glucose 190 mg/dL Creatinine 2.1 mg/dL Urine pH 8.3 Urine microscopy Bacteria moderate RBC 6–10/hpf WBC 10–15/hpf WBC casts numerous Ultrasound shows enlargement of the left kidney with a dilated pelvis and echogenic debris. CT scan shows a 16-mm stone at the left ureteropelvic junction, dilation of the collecting system, thickening of the wall of the renal pelvis, and signs of perirenal inflammation. Intravenous fluid resuscitation and intravenous ampicillin, gentamicin, and morphine are begun. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 69-year-old man is brought to the emergency department because of a 1-week history of recurring black stools. On questioning, he reports fatigue and loss of appetite over the last 3 months. Twenty years ago, he underwent a partial gastrectomy for peptic ulcer disease. The patient's father died of metastatic colon cancer at the age of 57 years. He is 163 cm (5 ft 4 in) tall and weighs 55 kg (121 lb); BMI is 20.8 kg/m2. He appears chronically ill. His temperature is 36.5°C (97.7°F), pulse is 105/min, and blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg. The conjunctiva appear pale. Cardiopulmonary examination shows no abnormalities. The abdomen is soft and nontender. There is a well-healed scar on the upper abdomen. His hemoglobin concentration is 10.5 g/dL and his mean corpuscular volume is 101 μm3. An upper endoscopy shows a large nodular mass on the anterior wall of the lesser curvature of the gastric stump. Biopsy samples are obtained, showing polypoid, glandular formation of irregular-shaped and fused gastric cells with intraluminal mucus, demonstrating an infiltrative growth. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 42-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain. She states that she was eating dinner when she suddenly felt abdominal pain and nausea. The pain did not improve after 30 minutes, so her husband brought her in. The patient has a past medical history of diabetes that is well-treated with exercise and metformin. Her temperature is 101°F (38.3°C), blood pressure is 147/98 mmHg, pulse is 90/min, respirations are 17/min, and oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Physical exam reveals right upper quadrant tenderness and guaiac negative stools. Which of the following is optimal management for this patient's condition?

A 37-year-old man presents to the physician. He has been overweight since childhood. He has not succeeded in losing weight despite following different diet and exercise programs over the past several years. He has had diabetes mellitus for 2 years and severe gastroesophageal reflux disease for 9 years. His medications include metformin, aspirin, and pantoprazole. His blood pressure is 142/94 mm Hg, pulse is 76/min, and respiratory rate is 14/min. His BMI is 36.5 kg/m2. Laboratory studies show: Hemoglobin A1C 6.6% Serum Fasting glucose 132 mg/dL Which of the following is the most appropriate surgical management?

A 46-year-old man comes to the physician with chronic abdominal pain. He has a 3-year history of severe peptic ulcer disease and esophagitis. Two months ago, he took omeprazole, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin for 14 days. His medical history is otherwise unremarkable. Currently, he takes omeprazole 60 mg/day. He is a 10 pack-year smoker and consumes alcohol regularly. Vital signs are within normal limits. Mild epigastric tenderness is noted on deep palpation of the epigastrium. Laboratory studies show: Serum Calcium 9.5 mg/dL Phosphorus 4 mg/dL An upper endoscopy shows several large ulcers in the antrum and 2nd and 3rd parts of the duodenum. The rapid urease test is negative. Fasting gastrin levels are elevated. PET-CT with Ga-Dotatate shows a single mass in the wall of the duodenum. No other mass is detected. Pituitary MRI shows no abnormality. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 24-year-old man comes to the emergency department because of left shoulder pain hours after suffering a fall from a height of approximately 10 feet while rock climbing about 5 hours ago. He initially thought the pain would resolve with rest but it became more severe over the last 2 hours. Last year while rock climbing he fell onto his right shoulder and “needed a sling to fix it”. He has psoriasis. His only medication is topical clobetasol. His pulse is 95/min, respiratory rate is 16/minute, and blood pressure is 114/70 mm Hg. Examination shows full passive and active range of motion at the left shoulder. There is no tenderness to palpation at the acromioclavicular joint. There are silvery plaques over both knees and elbows. Abdominal exam shows 7/10 left upper quadrant tenderness with voluntary guarding. A complete blood count and serum concentrations of electrolytes are within the reference range. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old woman comes to the physician because of a 3-month history of mild right upper abdominal pain. She has not had any fevers, chills, or weight loss. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. Medications include transdermal estrogen, which she recently started taking for symptoms related to menopause. Abdominal examination shows no abnormalities. Ultrasonography of the liver shows a well-demarcated, homogeneous, hyperechoic mass surrounded by normal liver tissue. A biopsy of the lesion would put this patient at greatest risk for which of the following complications?

A 73-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain with nausea and vomiting, stating that he “can’t keep anything down”. He states that the pain has been gradually getting worse over the past 2 months, saying that, at first, it was present only an hour after he ate but now is constant. He also says that he has been constipated for the last 2 weeks, which has also been getting progressively worse. His last bowel movement was 4 days ago which was normal. He states that he cannot pass flatus. The patient’s past medical history is significant for hypertension and an episode of pneumonia last year. The patient is afebrile and his pulse is 105/min. On physical examination, the patient is uncomfortable. His lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. His abdomen is visibly distended and diffusely tender with tympany on percussion. A contrast CT scan of the abdomen shows dilated loops of small bowel with collapsed large bowel. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient’s condition?

A 74-year-old man presents to the emergency department with sudden-onset abdominal pain that is most painful around the umbilicus. The pain began 16 hours ago and has no association with meals. He has not been vomiting, but he has had several episodes of bloody loose bowel movements. He was hospitalized 1 week ago for an acute myocardial infarction. He has had diabetes mellitus for 35 years and hypertension for 20 years. He has smoked 15–20 cigarettes per day for the past 40 years. His temperature is 36.9°C (98.42°F), blood pressure is 95/65 mm Hg, and pulse is 95/min. On physical examination, the patient is in severe pain, there is mild periumbilical tenderness, and a bruit is heard over the epigastric area. Which of the following is the definitive test to assess the patient condition?

A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1, para 0, at 30 weeks' gestation is brought to the emergency department because of progressive upper abdominal pain for the past hour. The patient vomited once on her way to the hospital. She states that she initially had dull stomach pain about 6 hours ago, but now the pain is located in the upper abdomen and is more severe. There is no personal or family history of serious illness. She is sexually active with her husband. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. Medications include folic acid and a multivitamin. Her temperature is 38.5°C (101.3°F), pulse is 100/min, and blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Physical examination shows right upper quadrant tenderness. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Laboratory studies show a leukocyte count of 12,000/mm3. Urinalysis shows mild pyuria. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?