Oncological Surgery Practice Questions

Q: What is the best treatment for glioblastoma multiforme?

Surgical excision followed by radiation therapy. **Explanation:** Glioblastoma Multiforme (GBM) is the most common and aggressive primary malignant brain tumor in adults (WHO Grade 4) [1]. The standard of care, known as the **Stupp Protocol**, involves a multimodal approach. **Why Option C is correct:** The primary goal in managing GBM is **maximal safe surgical resection** [1]. Reducing the tumor burden (cytoreduction) alleviates mass effect and intracranial hypertension [1]. However, because GBM is highly infiltrative, surgery alone is never curative. Therefore, it must be followed by **adjuvant radiotherapy** (usually 60 Gy) combined with **Temozolomide (TMZ)**, an oral alkylating agent, to target residual microscopic disease. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Option A (Chemotherapy):** While Temozolomide is standard, it is used as an *adjunct* to surgery and radiation, not as a standalone primary treatment. * **Option B (Radiation therapy):** Radiation alone is insufficient for large masses and is typically reserved for patients who are not surgical candidates due to tumor location or poor performance status. * **Option D (Stereotactic radiosurgery):** SRS is highly effective for small, well-demarcated brain metastases or vestibular schwannomas, but it is not the primary treatment for GBM due to the tumor's diffuse, ill-defined margins. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Imaging:** Classic "Butterfly glioma" appearance (crosses the corpus callosum) with **ring enhancement** and central necrosis on MRI [2]. * **Histopathology:** Characterized by **pseudopalisading necrosis** and microvascular proliferation. * **Prognostic Marker:** **MGMT promoter methylation** is a positive predictor of response to Temozolomide. * **Origin:** Arises from astrocytes; most common site is the cerebral hemispheres (frontal and temporal lobes).

Q: Which of the following requires the maximum margin of excision?

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Dermatofibrosarcoma Protuberans (DFSP)**. The primary factor determining excision margins is the biological behavior and local invasiveness of the tumor. DFSP is a low-to-intermediate grade cutaneous sarcoma characterized by extensive, subclinical **tentacle-like lateral extensions** (microscopic projections) into the surrounding dermis and subcutaneous fat. Because these extensions often go beyond the clinically visible tumor, standard narrow margins lead to extremely high recurrence rates. Current guidelines recommend a wide local excision with a margin of **2 to 4 cm**, or ideally, Mohs Micrographic Surgery (MMS). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Malignant Melanoma:** Margins are determined by the **Breslow thickness**. Even for the thickest tumors (>2 mm), the maximum recommended margin is **2 cm**. * **Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC):** Standard margins for high-risk SCC are typically **6 mm to 10 mm**. * **Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC):** This is the least aggressive of the group. Standard excision margins are usually **4 mm to 5 mm** for low-risk lesions. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **DFSP Pathognomonic Feature:** Histology shows a characteristic **"storiform" (cartwheel) pattern** of spindle cells and a **"honeycomb" appearance** when invading subcutaneous fat. * **Cytogenetics:** Associated with a translocation **t(17;22)**, leading to overexpression of PDGFB. * **Treatment of Choice:** Mohs Micrographic Surgery (MMS) is preferred over wide local excision to minimize tissue loss while ensuring clear margins. * **Medical Management:** **Imatinib** (a tyrosine kinase inhibitor) is used for metastatic or unresectable DFSP.

Q: A 42-year-old man is undergoing chemotherapy after resection of a cecal adenocarcinoma with positive lymph nodes. Which of the following potentially operable complications is a common occurrence among patients receiving systemic chemotherapy?

Perirectal abscess. ***Perirectal abscess*** - Chemotherapy-induced **neutropenia** and mucosal damage make the perianal area highly susceptible to bacterial translocation and **cryptoglandular infection**. - **Exquisite localized pain** is the hallmark symptom, as classic inflammatory signs like pus or fluctuance may be absent due to a lack of white blood cells. *Acute cholecystitis* - While acalculous cholecystitis can occur in critically ill patients, it is not a specific or common byproduct of **systemic chemotherapy**. - It typically presents with **Right Upper Quadrant (RUQ)** pain and Murphy's sign, rather than generalized chemotherapy-related complications. *Appendicitis* - The patient has undergone a **cecal adenocarcinoma resection**, meaning the appendix was almost certainly removed during the primary surgical procedure. - Current systemic chemotherapy does not significantly increase the baseline incidence of **appendiceal inflammation** across the general population. *Diverticulitis* - Although certain agents like **VEGF inhibitors** increase the risk of bowel perforation, primary diverticulitis is not standardly associated with neutropenic states. - **Diverticulosis** is a prerequisite for diverticulitis, and the pathophysiology is related to fecalith obstruction rather than chemotherapy-induced immunosuppression.

Q: What is the most common site for cancer of the tongue?

Lateral margin of tongue. **Explanation:** The **lateral margin of the tongue** (specifically the middle third) is the most common site for squamous cell carcinoma (SCC) of the tongue, accounting for approximately **75% of cases**. This area is particularly vulnerable due to chronic irritation from jagged teeth or ill-fitting dentures, and the pooling of carcinogens (like alcohol and tobacco) in the floor of the mouth and the adjacent lateral sulcus. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Base of tongue:** This refers to the posterior one-third (behind the circumvallate papillae). While it is a common site for HPV-associated oropharyngeal cancers, it is less frequent than lateral margin involvement. * **B. Tip of tongue:** This is a rare site for primary malignancy. * **D. Posterior attachment:** This is not a standard anatomical landmark for primary tongue cancer localization; most cancers arise on the mobile (anterior two-thirds) portion. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** 1. **Histology:** Squamous Cell Carcinoma (SCC) is the most common histological type (>90%). 2. **Lymphatic Spread:** Tongue cancers have a high propensity for early lymphatic spread. The tip drains to Submental nodes (Level I), while the lateral margins drain to Submandibular (Level I) and Deep Cervical nodes (Level II/III). 3. **Premalignant Lesions:** Erythroplakia has a much higher risk of malignant transformation than Leukoplakia. 4. **Prognosis:** Tumors of the posterior third (base) generally have a worse prognosis than the anterior two-thirds because they are often diagnosed late and have a higher rate of bilateral nodal metastasis.

Question 1

What is the best treatment for glioblastoma multiforme?

Accepted Answer

Surgical excision followed by radiation therapy

Answer

Chemotherapy

Answer

Radiation therapy

Answer

Stereotactic radiosurgery

Question 2

Which of the following requires the maximum margin of excision?

Accepted Answer

Dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans

Answer

Malignant melanoma

Answer

Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)

Answer

Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC)

Question 3

A 42-year-old man is undergoing chemotherapy after resection of a cecal adenocarcinoma with positive lymph nodes. Which of the following potentially operable complications is a common occurrence among patients receiving systemic chemotherapy?

Accepted Answer

Perirectal abscess

Answer

Acute cholecystitis

Answer

Appendicitis

Answer

Diverticulitis

Question 4

What is the most common site for cancer of the tongue?

Accepted Answer

Lateral margin of tongue

Answer

Base of tongue

Answer

Tip of tongue

Answer

Posterior attachment of tongue

Question 5

A 40-year-old man presents with pulmonary lesions on chest CT scan. He has a history of melanoma treated with wide local excision and lymph node dissection. Biopsy confirms metastatic melanoma in the pulmonary lesions. His general condition is good, with no evidence of recurrence or extrathoracic disease. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

Accepted Answer

Pulmonary metastasectomy

Answer

Pulmonary metastasectomy followed by radiation therapy

Answer

Chemotherapy

Answer

Radiation therapy

Oncological Surgery — MCQs

Oncological Surgery — MCQs

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