General Surgery Principles Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following hormones are increased due to stress during surgery, especially in patients with Diabetes Mellitus?

All of the above. **Explanation:** The surgical procedure acts as a potent physical and psychological stressor, triggering a complex neuroendocrine response aimed at maintaining homeostasis and mobilizing energy substrates. This is often referred to as the **"Stress Response to Surgery."** **Why "All of the above" is correct:** During surgery, the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal (HPA) axis and the sympathetic nervous system are activated, leading to a surge in **counter-regulatory hormones**. These hormones oppose the action of insulin, leading to hyperglycemia—a significant concern in patients with Diabetes Mellitus. 1. **Epinephrine (Option A):** Stress triggers the sympathetic-adrenal medullary axis, releasing catecholamines. Epinephrine increases glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis while inhibiting insulin secretion. 2. **Growth Hormone (Option B):** GH levels rise rapidly during surgical stress. It contributes to insulin resistance and stimulates lipolysis, providing alternative fuel sources. 3. **Glucocorticoids (Option C):** Cortisol levels rise significantly due to ACTH stimulation. Cortisol promotes protein catabolism and gluconeogenesis, further elevating blood glucose levels. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **The "Diabetes of Injury":** Surgical stress induces a state of transient insulin resistance and hyperglycemia even in non-diabetic patients; however, in diabetics, this can lead to severe metabolic derangements like DKA or HHS. * **Insulin is the "Odd One Out":** While counter-regulatory hormones (Glucagon, GH, Cortisol, Epinephrine) increase, insulin secretion is often suppressed or its peripheral action is impaired during the acute stress phase. * **ADH (Vasopressin):** Also increases during surgery to maintain blood volume, often leading to postoperative fluid retention. * **Cytokines:** IL-6 is the primary cytokine responsible for stimulating the acute-phase response during surgery.

Q: Which of the following diseases is effectively treated by splenectomy and does not typically present with splenomegaly?

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura. **Explanation:** The correct answer is **Idiopathic Thrombocytopenic Purpura (ITP)**. **1. Why ITP is the correct answer:** In ITP, anti-platelet IgG antibodies (produced in the spleen) coat the platelets, leading to their premature destruction by splenic macrophages. Splenectomy is a highly effective second-line treatment because it removes both the primary site of antibody production and the main site of platelet sequestration. Crucially, the spleen in ITP is **not typically enlarged**; if significant splenomegaly is present, a clinician should investigate alternative diagnoses like leukemia or lymphoma. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Sickle Cell Disease:** While splenectomy may be indicated for acute sequestration crises, these patients typically undergo **autosplenectomy** (shrunken, fibrotic spleen) by adulthood due to repeated infarctions. It is not a primary "treatment" for the underlying disease. * **Aplastic Anaemia:** This is a bone marrow failure syndrome. Splenectomy has no role in its management, as the pathology lies in the marrow's inability to produce cells, not their peripheral destruction. * **Thalassemia:** Splenectomy is often indicated for Thalassemia Major to reduce transfusion requirements, but these patients characteristically present with **massive splenomegaly** due to extramedullary hematopoiesis and secondary hypersplenism. **3. NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Most common indication for elective splenectomy:** ITP. * **Most common indication for emergency splenectomy:** Trauma (Splenic rupture). * **Vaccination Protocol:** Post-splenectomy patients must be vaccinated against encapsulated organisms (*S. pneumoniae, H. influenzae, N. meningitidis*) ideally 2 weeks before elective surgery or 2 weeks after emergency surgery. * **Peripheral Smear Findings:** Look for **Howell-Jolly bodies**, Pappenheimer bodies, and Heinz bodies post-splenectomy.

Q: Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the following except?

Varicose veins. ### Explanation The core concept behind a **trophic ulcer** is a lack of nutrition to the tissues resulting from **denervation** (loss of sensory/nerve supply) or **prolonged pressure**. **1. Why Varicose Veins is the correct answer:** Varicose veins lead to **Venous Ulcers** (Gaiter’s ulcers), not trophic ulcers. The pathophysiology involves venous hypertension and valvular incompetence, leading to blood stasis and fibrin cuff formation. Unlike trophic ulcers, venous ulcers are typically painful, associated with skin changes like lipodermatosclerosis and hemosiderin staining, and occur in areas with intact sensation. **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options (Causes of Trophic Ulcers):** * **Syringomyelia:** This is a neurological condition causing a "dissociated sensory loss." The loss of pain and temperature sensation leads to repetitive unnoticed trauma, resulting in trophic ulcers (typically in the upper limbs). * **Leprosy:** The most common cause of trophic ulcers in India. It involves peripheral nerve destruction (e.g., tibial nerve), leading to an insensitive foot. Constant pressure on bony prominences during walking causes tissue necrosis. * **Prolonged Recumbency:** This leads to **Pressure Sores (Decubitus ulcers)**, which are a subtype of trophic ulcers. Constant pressure on areas like the sacrum or heels exceeds capillary perfusion pressure, causing ischemic necrosis. ### NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls: * **Classic Site:** Trophic ulcers occur at pressure-bearing, denervated areas (e.g., the ball of the great toe, heel, or ischial tuberosity). * **Characteristics:** They are typically **painless**, "punched out" in appearance, and have a non-mobile base fixed to underlying bone. * **Management Principle:** The most important step in treating a trophic ulcer is **offloading** (removing pressure), often via a Total Contact Cast (TCC). * **Other Causes:** Diabetes Mellitus (Diabetic foot), Tabes dorsalis, and Spina bifida.

Q: A female developed a well-circumscribed swelling on the nape of her neck. It is not transilluminant, painless, and easily movable. Which of the following conditions is NOT brilliantly transilluminant?

Lipoma. **Explanation:** The clinical presentation described—a well-circumscribed, painless, and mobile swelling on the nape of the neck—is classic for a **Lipoma**. The core concept being tested here is **transillumination**, a clinical sign where light passes through a swelling containing clear fluid, making it appear "brilliant" or glowing. **1. Why Lipoma is the Correct Answer:** A lipoma is a benign tumor composed of mature adipocytes (fat cells). Because it consists of solid, fatty tissue rather than clear fluid, it is **opaque** and does not transilluminate. Lipomas are often referred to as "Universal Tumors" and typically present with a characteristic "slip sign." **2. Analysis of Incorrect Options (Brilliantly Transilluminant Conditions):** * **Vaginal hydrocele:** This is a collection of clear serous fluid within the tunica vaginalis. Since the fluid is clear and the covering is thin, it transilluminates brilliantly. * **Cystic hygroma:** This is a congenital lymphatic malformation (usually in the neck) containing clear lymph. Its thin-walled multilocular cysts allow light to pass through easily. * **Sacral meningocele:** This involves the protrusion of meninges containing Cerebrospinal Fluid (CSF). As CSF is a clear, water-like fluid, these swellings are transilluminant. **Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Rule of Thumb:** For a swelling to be transilluminant, it must contain **clear fluid** and have **thin skin/coverings**. * **Non-transilluminant fluids:** Swellings containing blood (haematocele), pus (abscess), or thick chyle will not transilluminate. * **Mnemonic for Transilluminant Swellings:** **"CHiPS"** – **C**ystic hygroma, **H**ydrocele, **P**haryngeal pouch (sometimes), **S**pina bifida (meningocele). * **The Slip Sign:** This is a pathognomonic clinical feature of lipomas where the edge of the tumor slips away from the examining finger.

Q: What is the typical behavior of an eruption cyst?

Regresses after the eruption of the tooth.. ### Explanation An **eruption cyst** is a soft tissue analogue of a dentigerous cyst. It occurs when the dental follicle separates from the crown of an erupting tooth within the soft tissues overlying the alveolar bone. **Why Option B is Correct:** The eruption cyst is a self-limiting condition. As the tooth continues its natural erupting path, it pierces the roof of the cyst. Once the tooth crown breaks through the gingival surface into the oral cavity, the cystic fluid drains, and the lesion **regresses spontaneously**. No surgical intervention is usually required unless the cyst becomes infected or symptomatic. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Option A:** It does not transform into a dentigerous cyst; rather, it is considered the extra-osseous (soft tissue) counterpart of one. * **Option C:** This describes a **primordial cyst**, which develops in place of a tooth that failed to form. Eruption cysts occur specifically over a tooth that is currently erupting. * **Option D:** While histologically similar, an eruption cyst is technically an **extra-alveolar** lesion, whereas a dentigerous cyst is **intra-osseous** (enclosing the crown of an unerupted tooth within the bone). **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** * **Clinical Appearance:** Presents as a soft, fluctuant, often bluish-purple swelling (if filled with blood, it is called an **eruption hematoma**) on the alveolar ridge. * **Common Site:** Most frequently seen in the deciduous maxillary incisors and first permanent molars. * **Management:** "Masterly inactivity" (observation). If eruption is delayed, a simple incision (fenestration) of the cyst roof may be performed.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a complication of massive blood transfusion?

Hyperthermia. ### Explanation **Massive Blood Transfusion (MBT)** is defined as the replacement of >10 units of PRBCs in 24 hours or 1 blood volume in 24 hours. **Why Hyperthermia is the Correct Answer:** Massive transfusion typically leads to **Hypothermia**, not hyperthermia. This occurs because stored blood is kept at 4°C. Rapid infusion of large volumes of cold blood overrides the body’s thermoregulatory mechanisms, shifting the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve to the left and potentially causing cardiac arrhythmias. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **Septicemia:** Every unit of blood carries a risk of bacterial contamination (more common in platelets due to room temperature storage). In MBT, the sheer volume and multiple donors significantly increase the cumulative risk of transfusion-transmitted infections and sepsis. * **Thrombocytopenia:** Stored whole blood or PRBCs are deficient in viable platelets and clotting factors (V and VIII). Large-scale replacement with deficient blood leads to **dilutional thrombocytopenia** and coagulopathy. * **ARDS:** This can occur as part of **TRALI (Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury)**, a leading cause of transfusion-related mortality. It involves donor antibodies reacting against recipient neutrophils, leading to non-cardiogenic pulmonary edema. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Electrolyte Triad of MBT:** Hypocalcemia (citrate toxicity), Hyperkalemia (leaking from stored RBCs), and Metabolic Alkalosis (citrate converted to bicarbonate). * **Hypocalcemia:** Citrate used as an anticoagulant binds to the patient's ionized calcium. * **Lethal Triad of Trauma:** Hypothermia, Acidosis, and Coagulopathy (all exacerbated by MBT). * **Management:** Use blood warmers and follow a **1:1:1 ratio** (PRBC:FFP:Platelets) to prevent dilutional coagulopathy.

Q: What is the concentration of sodium in Ringer's Lactate (RL) solution?

130 mEq/L. **Explanation:** Ringer's Lactate (RL), also known as Hartmann's solution, is a balanced crystalloid solution designed to mimic the electrolyte composition of human plasma. It is considered more physiological than Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl) because it contains lower concentrations of sodium and chloride, preventing hyperchloremic metabolic acidosis. **Why 130 mEq/L is correct:** The sodium concentration in RL is specifically formulated to be **130 mEq/L**. This is slightly hyponatremic compared to plasma (135–145 mEq/L), which is why RL is generally avoided in patients with head injuries (to prevent cerebral edema). **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **154 mEq/L (Option A):** This is the sodium concentration of **Normal Saline (0.9% NaCl)**. It is isotonic but contains supra-physiological levels of chloride (154 mEq/L). * **120 mEq/L (Option B):** This value does not correspond to standard resuscitation fluids; it is significantly lower than physiological requirements. * **144 mEq/L (Option C):** This is the sodium concentration found in **Plasmalyte**, another balanced crystalloid that more closely matches human plasma sodium levels. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Composition of RL:** Na⁺ (130), Cl⁻ (109), K⁺ (4), Ca²⁺ (3), and Lactate (28) mEq/L. * **The Lactate Factor:** Lactate is metabolized by the **liver** into bicarbonate; therefore, RL is contraindicated in severe liver failure and lactic acidosis. * **Drug Incompatibility:** RL contains **Calcium**, so it should not be administered in the same line as blood transfusions (citrate in blood binds with calcium, causing clots) or certain drugs like Ceftriaxone. * **Fluid of Choice:** RL is the preferred fluid for **burns (Parkland Formula)** and most surgical resuscitations.

Q: Which surgical blade is typically used for suture removal?

Suture removal. The correct answer is **Suture removal**, specifically referring to the **No. 12 blade**. ### Educational Explanation **1. Why the correct answer is right:** The **No. 12 blade** is a small, pointed, crescent-shaped blade sharpened along the inside edge of the curve. This unique "hooked" design allows the surgeon to slide the blade underneath a suture thread easily. Once positioned, the upward pulling motion cuts the suture from the inside out, minimizing skin trauma and preventing the sharp tip from accidentally pricking the patient. **2. Why the other options are incorrect:** * **Minor surgical procedures:** While many blades are used in minor surgery, the **No. 15 blade** is the gold standard. It has a small, curved cutting edge ideal for making short, precise incisions in delicate areas (e.g., hand or plastic surgery). * **Abscess drainage:** The **No. 11 blade** is preferred here. It is an elongated, triangular blade with a sharp point, perfect for "stab incisions" required to puncture and drain an abscess or for laparoscopic port insertions. * **Abdominal incision:** Large incisions (laparotomy) require the **No. 10 blade**. It has a large, curved cutting edge (the "belly") used for making long, deep incisions through skin and subcutaneous fat. ### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: * **Blade Handles:** Blades #10, #11, #12, and #15 fit on the **No. 3 handle**. Larger blades like #20-#24 fit on the **No. 4 handle**. * **No. 11 Blade:** Also used for Arteriotomy and I&D (Incision and Drainage). * **No. 15 Blade:** Most common blade used for skin biopsies and fine surgical work. * **Safety Tip:** Always use a needle holder (not fingers) to attach or remove blades from the handle to prevent needle-stick injuries.

Question 1

A 25-year-old female presents with a diffuse, non-progressive, and non-tender swelling of the right maxilla, measuring approximately 2 x 1.5 cm, extending from the canine to the first molar region. Radiography reveals a ground glass appearance of the bone in the affected area. What is the appropriate surgical treatment?

Accepted Answer

Surgical cosmetic recontouring only

Answer

Total excision of the lesion

Answer

Curettage of the area with extraction of the involved teeth

Answer

Surgical excision followed by radiotherapy

Question 2

Which of the following hormones are increased due to stress during surgery, especially in patients with Diabetes Mellitus?

Accepted Answer

All of the above

Answer

Epinephrine

Answer

Growth Hormone (GH)

Answer

Glucocorticoids

Question 3

Which of the following diseases is effectively treated by splenectomy and does not typically present with splenomegaly?

Accepted Answer

Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura

Answer

Sickle cell disease

Answer

Aplastic anaemia

Answer

Thalassemia

Question 4

Trophic ulcers are caused by all of the following except?

Accepted Answer

Varicose veins

Answer

Syringomyelia

Answer

Leprosy

Answer

Prolonged recumbency

Question 5

A female developed a well-circumscribed swelling on the nape of her neck. It is not transilluminant, painless, and easily movable. Which of the following conditions is NOT brilliantly transilluminant?

Accepted Answer

Lipoma

Answer

Vaginal hydrocele of an infant

Answer

Cystic hygroma

Answer

Sacral meningocele

Question 6

What is the typical behavior of an eruption cyst?

Accepted Answer

Regresses after the eruption of the tooth.

Answer

Transforms into a dentigerous cyst.

Answer

Is found in the location of a missing tooth.

Answer

Is a type of dentigerous cyst.

Question 7

Which of the following is NOT a complication of massive blood transfusion?

Accepted Answer

Hyperthermia

Answer

Septicemia

Answer

Thrombocytopenia

Answer

ARDS

Question 8

A 50-year-old known asthmatic develops sudden onset right-sided chest pain with dyspnea. Chest X-ray reveals hyperlucency on the right side with a shift of the trachea to the left side. What is the best treatment for immediate relief of symptoms?

Accepted Answer

Water seal intercostal drainage on the right side of the chest

Answer

Intravenous morphine

Answer

Nebulization of beta 2 agonist, e.g., salbutamol

Answer

Intravenous aminophylline

Question 9

What is the concentration of sodium in Ringer's Lactate (RL) solution?

Accepted Answer

130 mEq/L

Answer

154 mEq/L

Answer

120 mEq/L

Answer

144 mEq/L

Question 10

Which surgical blade is typically used for suture removal?

Accepted Answer

Suture removal

Answer

Minor surgical procedures

Answer

Abscess drainage

Answer

Abdominal incision

General Surgery Principles — MCQs

General Surgery Principles — MCQs

On this page

Practice by Chapter

Want unlimited practice?