Psychopharmacology Practice Questions

Q: What is the drug of choice for adult Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

Methylphenidate. **Explanation:** **Methylphenidate** is the drug of choice (DOC) for ADHD across all age groups, including adults. ADHD is fundamentally linked to a dysregulation of dopamine and norepinephrine in the prefrontal cortex. Methylphenidate acts as a **Central Nervous System (CNS) stimulant** by blocking the reuptake of dopamine and norepinephrine, thereby increasing their synaptic availability and improving executive function, focus, and impulse control. **Analysis of Options:** * **A. Olanzapine:** This is an atypical antipsychotic used for schizophrenia and bipolar disorder. It blocks dopamine receptors ($D_2$), which would theoretically worsen ADHD symptoms. * **B. Fluoxetine:** An SSRI used primarily for depression and anxiety. While ADHD often has comorbidities, SSRIs do not address the core symptoms of inattention or hyperactivity. * **C. Methylphenidate (Correct):** The gold standard stimulant treatment for adult ADHD. * **D. Bupropion:** An atypical antidepressant (NDRI) that is considered a **second-line** treatment for ADHD, particularly useful if there is comorbid depression or nicotine addiction, but it is not the first-line DOC. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **First-line (Stimulants):** Methylphenidate (most common) and Amphetamines. * **First-line (Non-Stimulants):** **Atomoxetine** is the preferred non-stimulant, especially if there is a history of substance abuse or tics. * **Adult Presentation:** In adults, "hyperactivity" often manifests as internal restlessness or "mental agitation" rather than the overt running/climbing seen in children. * **Side Effects:** Monitor for insomnia, decreased appetite, and potential increases in heart rate/blood pressure.

Q: A patient presented with premature ejaculation and was started on an SSRI with a short half-life. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?

Dapoxetine. **Explanation:** **Dapoxetine** is the correct answer because it is the only Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI) specifically designed and FDA-approved for the "on-demand" treatment of **Premature Ejaculation (PE)**. The underlying medical concept relies on its unique pharmacokinetics: * **Rapid Absorption:** It reaches peak plasma concentration ($T_{max}$) in approximately 1–2 hours. * **Short Half-life:** It has a very short terminal half-life (approx. 1.5 hours), leading to rapid elimination. This profile allows patients to take the medication 1–3 hours before intercourse, providing immediate efficacy while minimizing the long-term systemic side effects (like weight gain or chronic sexual dysfunction) associated with daily SSRI use. **Why other options are incorrect:** * **Fluoxetine (B):** Has the longest half-life (2–4 days, with an active metabolite lasting up to 2 weeks). It requires daily dosing for weeks to achieve a steady state, making it unsuitable for "on-demand" use. * **Escitalopram (A) and Citalopram (C):** These are standard SSRIs used for depression/anxiety. While they can delay ejaculation as a side effect, they have intermediate half-lives (approx. 27–35 hours) and are typically used as off-label, daily treatments rather than short-acting, on-demand options. **High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG:** * **Mechanism in PE:** SSRIs increase serotonin levels in the synaptic cleft, which stimulates $5-HT_{2C}$ receptors, thereby increasing the ejaculatory threshold and delaying the ejaculatory reflex. * **Drug of Choice:** Dapoxetine is the drug of choice for PE. * **Contraindication:** Avoid combining Dapoxetine with alcohol or other potent CYP3A4 inhibitors due to the risk of syncope and increased plasma levels.

Q: Which of the following psychotropic drugs is most likely to produce a severe withdrawal syndrome when suddenly discontinued?

Alprazolam. ### Explanation **Correct Option: B. Alprazolam** The severity of a drug withdrawal syndrome is primarily determined by the drug's **half-life** and its **potency**. Alprazolam is a high-potency, short-acting benzodiazepine. When discontinued abruptly, the drug levels in the blood drop rapidly, giving the central nervous system (CNS) no time to readapt. This leads to a rebound of GABAergic inhibition and a surge in excitatory neurotransmission. The withdrawal syndrome for Alprazolam is notorious for being severe and potentially life-threatening, characterized by anxiety, insomnia, tremors, and, most critically, **seizures** and **delirium**. --- ### Why the other options are incorrect: * **A. Lithium carbonate:** While abrupt cessation of Lithium can lead to a high risk of early relapse of Bipolar Affective Disorder (BPAD), it does not produce a physiological "withdrawal syndrome" in the traditional sense. * **C. Chlorpromazine:** This is a low-potency antipsychotic. While sudden discontinuation can cause "cholinergic rebound" (nausea, vomiting, sweating), it is rarely life-threatening compared to benzodiazepine withdrawal. * **D. Benztropine:** This is an anticholinergic used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms. Stopping it abruptly may cause a return of Parkinsonian symptoms or mild flu-like symptoms, but not a severe withdrawal syndrome. --- ### High-Yield Clinical Pearls for NEET-PG: 1. **The "Short-Acting Rule":** Among benzodiazepines, those with short half-lives and no active metabolites (e.g., **Alprazolam, Lorazepam, Oxazepam**) cause more severe withdrawal than long-acting ones (e.g., Diazepam, Chlordiazepoxide). 2. **Management:** To prevent withdrawal, high-potency benzodiazepines should be tapered slowly or cross-tapered to a long-acting agent like **Diazepam**. 3. **Seizure Risk:** Benzodiazepine and Alcohol withdrawal are the two primary psychiatric emergencies where withdrawal can lead to status epilepticus.

Q: Which antidepressant drug can be safely used in children?

Fluoxetine. **Explanation:** **Fluoxetine** is the correct answer because it is the only antidepressant consistently approved by major regulatory bodies (like the US-FDA) for the treatment of Major Depressive Disorder (MDD) in children and adolescents (ages 8 and older). **Why Fluoxetine?** Fluoxetine is a Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI). It is preferred in the pediatric population due to its long half-life (reducing withdrawal symptoms if a dose is missed) and a superior safety profile compared to older antidepressants. While SSRIs carry a "black box warning" regarding increased suicidal ideation in young patients, Fluoxetine remains the first-line pharmacological choice when therapy is indicated. **Analysis of Incorrect Options:** * **A. Imipramine:** This is a Tricyclic Antidepressant (TCA). While it is used for nocturnal enuresis in children, it is **not** recommended for pediatric depression due to significant cardiotoxicity and lack of proven efficacy in this age group. * **C. Dothiepin (Dosulepin):** Another TCA with a high risk of toxicity in overdose and significant sedative/anticholinergic side effects, making it unsuitable for children. * **D. Risperidone:** This is an **atypical antipsychotic**, not an antidepressant. While used in children for irritability associated with autism or conduct disorders, it is not a primary treatment for depression. **High-Yield NEET-PG Pearls:** * **First-line for Pediatric MDD:** Fluoxetine. * **Second-line for Pediatric MDD:** Sertraline or Escitalopram (often used off-label or for OCD). * **OCD in Children:** Fluvoxamine and Sertraline are also FDA-approved. * **Black Box Warning:** All antidepressants carry a warning for increased risk of suicidal thoughts/behavior in patients under 24 years of age.

Q: Which mood stabilizer is used in the management of bipolar disorder?

lithium. **Explanation:** **Lithium** is considered the "gold standard" and the first-line mood stabilizer for the long-term prophylaxis and treatment of Bipolar Affective Disorder (BPAD). Its primary mechanism involves the inhibition of the inositol monophosphatase pathway and modulation of G-proteins. It is uniquely effective in reducing the risk of suicide in patients with mood disorders—a high-yield fact for NEET-PG. **Analysis of Options:** * **Lithium (Correct):** It is the drug of choice for classic Bipolar I disorder (euphoric mania). It has a narrow therapeutic index (0.6–1.2 mEq/L) and requires regular serum monitoring. * **Carbamazepine (Incorrect):** While used as a second-line mood stabilizer, especially in rapid cycling or mixed episodes, it is not the primary answer when Lithium is an option. It is an enzyme inducer and carries risks of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome. * **Lamotrigine (Incorrect):** It is primarily used for the **maintenance** phase of Bipolar disorder to prevent depressive episodes. It is not effective for treating acute mania. * **Valproate (Incorrect):** It is the drug of choice for **Rapid Cycling Bipolar Disorder** and mixed episodes. While a potent mood stabilizer, Lithium remains the traditional "first" answer in general medical examinations unless specific subtypes are mentioned. **NEET-PG High-Yield Pearls:** 1. **Teratogenicity:** Lithium causes **Ebstein’s Anomaly** (tricuspid valve displacement); Valproate causes **Neural Tube Defects**. 2. **Side Effects:** Lithium commonly causes nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, hypothyroidism, and fine tremors. 3. **Monitoring:** Check Renal Function Tests (RFT) and Thyroid Function Tests (TFT) before starting Lithium. 4. **Drug Interactions:** Thiazides, NSAIDs, and ACE inhibitors can increase Lithium levels, leading to toxicity.

Question 1

Which of the following is NOT a recommended treatment for malignant neuroleptic syndrome?

Accepted Answer

Chlorpromazine

Answer

Dantrolene

Answer

Peripheral cooling

Answer

Diazepam

Question 2

Akathisia is treated by which of the following medications?

Accepted Answer

Haloperidol

Answer

Trihexyphenidyl

Answer

Diazepam

Answer

Promethazine

Question 3

What is the drug of choice for adult Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

Accepted Answer

Methylphenidate

Answer

Olanzapine

Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Bupropion

Question 4

Newer MAO inhibitors are useful in the treatment of?

Accepted Answer

Depression

Answer

Mania

Answer

Schizophrenia

Answer

Hypertension

Question 5

A patient presented with premature ejaculation and was started on an SSRI with a short half-life. Which of the following is the most appropriate medication?

Accepted Answer

Dapoxetine

Answer

Escitalopram

Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Citalopram

Question 6

Which of the following psychotropic drugs is most likely to produce a severe withdrawal syndrome when suddenly discontinued?

Accepted Answer

Alprazolam

Answer

Lithium carbonate

Answer

Chlorpromazine

Answer

Benztropine

Question 7

A 25-year-old man presents to the emergency ward with complaints of 'stiffness and twisting' of his neck and jaw. He describes these symptoms as very uncomfortable and completely involuntary. His medications include lithium and trifluoperazine. Which of the following is the next immediate step in management?

Accepted Answer

Intramuscular benztropine

Answer

Intravenous lorazepam

Answer

Diphenhydramine

Answer

Trifluoperazine

Question 8

Which antidepressant drug can be safely used in children?

Accepted Answer

Fluoxetine

Answer

Imipramine

Answer

Dothiepin

Answer

Risperidone

Question 9

A patient diagnosed with schizophrenia was prescribed haloperidol for violent behaviour and agitation. On the third day, the patient developed rigidity and was unable to move their neck, with a fixed stare to one side. Which of the following drugs can be used for the treatment of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Promethazine

Answer

Increase dose of haloperidol

Answer

Risperidone

Answer

Diazepam

Question 10

Which mood stabilizer is used in the management of bipolar disorder?

Accepted Answer

lithium

Answer

carbamazepine

Answer

lamotrigine

Answer

valproate

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

Psychopharmacology — MCQs

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