NEET-PG 2019 Practice Questions

Q: Which of the following structures is not a boundary of Calot's triangle shown in the given image?

Gallbladder. ***Gallbladder*** - The image depicts **Calot's triangle**, which is an important anatomical landmark in gallbladder surgery. The gallbladder itself is located within this region, but it is not one of the defined boundaries of the triangle. - While central to the anatomy shown, the **gallbladder** is surrounded by the structures that form the triangle's boundaries rather than bounding it itself. *Common hepatic duct* - The **common hepatic duct** forms the medial boundary of Calot's triangle. - This duct is formed by the union of the right and left hepatic ducts and carries bile from the liver. *Cystic duct* - The **cystic duct** forms the lateral (or inferior) boundary of Calot's triangle. - This duct connects the gallbladder to the common hepatic duct. *Inferior surface of the liver* - The **inferior surface of the liver** forms the superior boundary of Calot's triangle. - Specifically, this refers to the edge of the right lobe of the liver at the base of the gallbladder fossa.

Q: Identify the condition of the given image:

Keratosis obturans. ***Keratosis obturans*** - The image shows a **plug of desquamated keratin** filling the external auditory canal. This is the characteristic appearance of keratosis obturans. - This condition is often associated with severe pain, conductive hearing loss, and sometimes **bone erosion** of the external auditory canal. *Acquired cholesteatoma* - This condition involves a **retraction pocket** or **perforation** of the tympanic membrane with ingrowth of keratinizing squamous epithelium into the middle ear, forming a sac. - The image does not show a retraction pocket or a middle ear mass, which are typical features of acquired cholesteatoma. *Congenital cholesteatoma* - This is a **pearly white mass** located behind an intact tympanic membrane, without any history of ear infections or perforations. - The image shows an external auditory canal filled with a plug, not a middle ear mass behind an intact tympanic membrane. *Rupture of tympanic membrane* - A rupture of the tympanic membrane would present as a **visible defect or perforation** in the eardrum. - The image shows an accumulation of material within the ear canal, and the tympanic membrane itself is not clearly visible or perforated in a manner indicative of rupture.

Q: Identify the maneuver shown in the image.

Epley. ***Epley*** - The image displays the classic sequence of head and body movements characteristic of the **Epley maneuver**, designed to reposition otoconia from the semicircular canals back into the utricle. - This maneuver involves a series of specific head turns and body positions, often starting in an upright seated position, then lying down while turning the head, and rotating the body, as depicted. *Brandt daroff* - The **Brandt-Daroff exercises** involve rapid, self-administered movements between sitting and lying on one side, then sitting up and lying on the other side. - These exercises are typically performed multiple times a day and differ in their sequence from the repositioning maneuvers shown. *Foster* - The **Foster maneuver**, also known as the "half-somersault maneuver," is a self-administered variant used for posterior canal BPPV, particularly when the Epley maneuver is difficult to perform. - It involves beginning in a kneeling position, looking up, placing the head on the floor, and tucking the chin, which is distinct from the sequence shown. *Semont* - The **Semont maneuver** involves rapid movement from a sitting position to lying on one side with the head turned up, then rapidly moving to lie on the opposite side with the head turned down. - While it is a repositioning maneuver for BPPV, its specific rapid movements and head orientations differ from those illustrated in the image.

Q: In which condition are solitary lytic lesions typically seen?

Multiple myeloma. ***Multiple myeloma*** - **Solitary lytic lesions**, also known as **"punched-out" lesions**, are a classic radiographic finding in multiple myeloma due to **plasma cell proliferation** in the bone [1]. - Patients often have **elevated serum proteins** and show signs of **renal impairment** and anemia, alongside these bone lesions [1]. *Atherosclerosis* - Primarily affects **blood vessels**, leading to plaque formation, and does not cause **lytic bone lesions**. - Clinical manifestations focus on **cardiovascular disease** rather than bone abnormalities. *Mitral stenosis* - Affects the **heart valves** and results in **heart failure** symptoms rather than causing lytic lesions in bones. - Clinical findings include **dyspnea** and signs of **pulmonary congestion**, which are unrelated to bone pathology. *Osteoblast* - Osteoblasts are **bone-forming cells**, and while they may be involved in certain bone diseases, they do not create **solitary lytic lesions**. - Lytic lesions typically arise from **osteoclast activity** or **tumor infiltration**, not from osteoblastic processes [1].

Q: Identify the cardiac condition represented in the image.

Ventricular tachycardia. ***Ventricular tachycardia*** - The image displays a **wide, regular QRS complex tachycardia**, which is characteristic of **ventricular tachycardia (VT)**. - The QRS complexes are broad and bizarre, originating from an ectopic focus within the ventricles. *Atrial fibrillation* - **Atrial fibrillation** is characterized by an **irregularly irregular rhythm** with the absence of distinct P waves and varying R-R intervals. - The rhythm shown in the image is regular, which rules out atrial fibrillation. *Atrial flutter* - **Atrial flutter** typically presents with a "sawtooth" pattern of **flutter waves** in specific leads (e.g., II, III, aVF) and a regular or irregular ventricular response, often with a 2:1 or 3:1 block. - The image does not show these characteristic flutter waves. *Supraventricular tachycardia* - **Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT)** usually presents with a **narrow QRS complex** (unless there's an underlying bundle branch block) and a regular rhythm, originating from above the ventricles. - The QRS complexes in the image are wide, indicating a ventricular origin, not supraventricular.

Q: Which of the following statements about deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is incorrect?

Mostly bilateral. ***Mostly bilateral*** - DVT is typically **unilateral**, affecting one limb [2]. Bilateral DVT is less common, making this statement incorrect [2]. - The symptoms of **pain, swelling, and tenderness** are usually localized to one leg [1]. *Most common clinically presents as pain and tenderness in calf* - **Calf pain and tenderness** are common clinical presentations of DVT, especially in the lower extremities [1]. - Other common signs include **swelling, warmth, and redness** in the affected leg [1]. *Some cases may directly present as pulmonary thromboembolism* - A significant concern with DVT is that a **clot can dislodge** and travel to the lungs, causing a **pulmonary embolism (PE)**, which can be the initial presentation [1]. - PE is a potentially life-threatening complication and may present with **dyspnea, chest pain, and hemoptysis**. *Clinical assessment highly reliable* - **Clinical assessment alone is not highly reliable** for diagnosing DVT due to its variable and often non-specific presentation [2]. - A definitive diagnosis usually requires objective diagnostic tests such as **compression ultrasonography** or **D-dimer assay** [3].

Q: The major contributor to amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation is:

Fetal urine. ***Fetal urine*** - After **20 weeks of gestation**, the **fetal kidneys** are fully functional, and fetal urination becomes the primary source of amniotic fluid. - This contribution is crucial for the **volume of amniotic fluid** and plays a vital role in **fetal lung development** by allowing the fetus to "breathe" the fluid. *Ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma* - While an ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma contributes to the early amniotic fluid volume, its significance diminishes as the **fetal kidneys mature** past 20 weeks. - This source primarily provides water and dissolved solutes, but not a substantial volume. *Fluid from fetal lungs* - Fluid produced by the fetal lungs also contributes to amniotic fluid, but its volume is considerably smaller than that from **fetal urine**, especially after 20 weeks. - It mainly includes pulmonary surfactants and other specific proteins important for lung maturation. *Fetal skin* - Before **keratinization** of the fetal skin (around 20-22 weeks), the skin is permeable and allows for transepidermal fluid transport, contributing to amniotic fluid. - However, once **keratinization** is complete, the skin becomes impermeable, and its contribution to amniotic fluid becomes negligible.

Q: Bimanual grip is seen at what age?

6 months. ***6 months*** - **Bimanual grip**, which involves using both hands to grasp an object, typically develops around **6 months of age**. - This milestone marks the ability to bring objects to the midline and use both hands cooperatively. *4 months* - At **4 months**, infants typically start to reach for objects with one hand but do not yet consistently demonstrate a coordinated **bimanual grip**. - They are more likely to swipe at objects or grasp with a **primitive palmar grasp** in one hand. *5 months* - While infants at **5 months** show increasing dexterity and may bring objects to the midline, a full, consistent **bimanual grip** is usually not yet firmly established. - They are moving towards this skill but have not fully mastered it. *7 months* - By **7 months**, infants have typically refined their grasping skills, including transferring objects from hand to hand and using a **bimanual grip**. - This age is usually past the initial emergence of this specific skill.

Q: Which of the following statements is true regarding delusional disorder?

Held with absolute conviction. ***Held with absolute conviction*** - This is the **BEST ANSWER** as it describes a **core diagnostic criterion** for delusions in delusional disorder per DSM-5/ICD-11. - Delusions are defined as **fixed, false beliefs held with absolute conviction** despite clear evidence to the contrary. - This unwavering certainty is what distinguishes delusions from overvalued ideas or normal beliefs. - This statement captures the fundamental **nature and defining characteristic** of the disorder itself. *More commonly occurs in middle to late adulthood* - This statement is **factually TRUE** - delusional disorder typically has onset between ages 40-55 (middle to late adulthood). - However, this describes **epidemiological data** (when it occurs), not a defining feature of the disorder. - While accurate, it is less fundamental than the absolute conviction which is a **diagnostic criterion**. *Often not amenable to reasoning* - This statement is also **factually TRUE** - patients with delusional disorder cannot be reasoned out of their false beliefs. - However, this is a **consequence** of the absolute conviction, not the primary defining feature. - The inability to respond to reasoning stems from the unwavering belief system. *Occurs at early age* - This is **FALSE** - delusional disorder is rare in early age. - Typical onset is in **middle to late adulthood** (ages 40-55), not childhood or adolescence. - Early onset would be atypical for this disorder.

Q: Identify the condition based on the provided image.

Callosal dysgenesis. ***Callosal dysgenesis*** - The image shows **colpocephaly**, characterized by **dilatation of the posterior horns** of the lateral ventricles and narrowing of the anterior horns. This is a classic MRI finding in callosal dysgenesis. - The absence or partial formation of the **corpus callosum** leads to a high-riding third ventricle and parallel lateral ventricles, which are often visualized alongside colpocephaly. *Dandy-Walker syndrome* - Characterized by a **cystic dilatation of the fourth ventricle** that fills the posterior fossa, leading to an upward displacement of the tentorium. - This condition involves agenesis or hypoplasia of the **cerebellar vermis**, which is not depicted in this image. *Aicardi syndrome* - Aicardi syndrome is characterized by the triad of **agenesis of the corpus callosum**, **chorioretinal lacunae**, and **infantile spasms**. - While it includes agenesis of the corpus callosum, the image alone does not provide evidence of the ocular or seizure components of Aicardi syndrome. *Septo-optic dysplasia* - This condition is defined by the **triad of optic nerve hypoplasia**, **pituitary hormone abnormalities**, and **midline brain defects**, specifically hypoplasia or absence of the septum pellucidum. - The image does not show features specific to optic nerve hypoplasia or the typical midline cysts or absent septum pellucidum characteristic of septo-optic dysplasia.

Question 1

Which of the following structures is not a boundary of Calot's triangle shown in the given image?

Accepted Answer

Gallbladder

Answer

Common hepatic duct

Answer

Cystic duct

Answer

Inferior surface of the liver

Question 2

Identify the condition of the given image:

Accepted Answer

Keratosis obturans

Answer

Acquired cholesteatoma

Answer

Congenital cholesteatoma

Answer

Rupture of tympanic membrane

Question 3

Identify the maneuver shown in the image.

Accepted Answer

Epley

Answer

Brandt-Daroff

Answer

Foster

Answer

Semont

Question 4

In which condition are solitary lytic lesions typically seen?

Accepted Answer

Multiple myeloma

Answer

Atherosclerosis

Answer

Mitral stenosis

Answer

Osteosarcoma

Question 5

Identify the cardiac condition represented in the image.

Accepted Answer

Ventricular tachycardia

Answer

Atrial fibrillation

Answer

Atrial flutter

Answer

Supraventricular tachycardia

Question 6

Which of the following statements about deep venous thrombosis (DVT) is incorrect?

Accepted Answer

Mostly bilateral

Answer

Most common clinically presents as pain and tenderness in calf

Answer

Some cases may directly present as pulmonary thromboembolism

Answer

Clinical assessment highly reliable

Question 7

The major contributor to amniotic fluid after 20 weeks of gestation is:

Accepted Answer

Fetal urine

Answer

Fetal skin

Answer

Ultrafiltrate of maternal plasma

Answer

Fluid from fetal lungs

Question 8

Bimanual grip is seen at what age?

Accepted Answer

6 months

Answer

5 months

Answer

7 months

Answer

4 months

Question 9

Which of the following statements is true regarding delusional disorder?

Accepted Answer

Held with absolute conviction

Answer

Occurs at early age

Answer

More commonly occurs in middle to late adulthood

Answer

Often not amenable to reasoning

Question 10

Identify the condition based on the provided image.

Accepted Answer

Callosal dysgenesis

Answer

Dandy-Walker syndrome

Answer

Aicardi syndrome

Answer

Septo-optic dysplasia

NEET-PG 2019

Anatomy

ENT

Internal Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pediatrics

Psychiatry

Radiology