NEET-PG 2018 Practice Questions

Q: Which chromosome is responsible for the production of MIF?

Chromosome 22. ***Chromosome 22*** * The **macrophage migration inhibitory factor (MIF)** gene is located on **chromosome 22q11.2**, making it responsible for MIF production. * MIF is a crucial **pro-inflammatory cytokine** involved in immune responses and inflammation. *Chromosome 16* * Chromosome 16 contains genes like those for **alpha-globin** and **CDH1 (E-cadherin)**, not MIF. * Disorders associated with chromosome 16 include **alpha-thalassemia** and certain types of **hereditary diffuse gastric cancer**. *X Chromosome* * The X chromosome contains genes primarily involved in **sex determination** and various X-linked disorders. * Examples include genes like **DMD (Duchenne muscular dystrophy)** and **F8 (hemophilia A)**, but not MIF. *Y chromosome* * The Y chromosome contains genes, such as **SRY (sex-determining region Y)**, that are critical for male sexual development. * It plays a role in male-specific traits and conditions like **infertility** but does not carry the gene for MIF.

Q: Which of these steps is followed first for the management of shoulder dystocia after McRoberts maneuver?

Suprapubic pressure. ***Suprapubic pressure*** - After performing the **McRoberts maneuver**, applying **suprapubic pressure** is the next step to aid in dislodging the anterior shoulder from behind the pubic symphysis. - This maneuver helps to adduct the fetal shoulders and rotates the anterior shoulder into a more oblique diameter, often allowing for delivery. *90-degree rotation of posterior shoulder* - This describes components of the **Wood's screw maneuver**, which, while effective, is typically attempted *after* suprapubic pressure if initial maneuvers fail. - The Wood's screw maneuver involves rotating the fetal shoulders to disimpact the anterior shoulder, but it is not the *first* step following McRoberts and suprapubic pressure. *Emergency C-section* - An **emergency C-section** is reserved for cases where all other *manual maneuvers* have failed to resolve shoulder dystocia and is not a primary or early step in the management algorithm. - The goal is to first attempt less invasive maneuvers to deliver the baby vaginally, as a C-section carries its own set of risks. *Sharp flexion of hip joints towards abdomen* - This action describes the **McRoberts maneuver** itself, which involves hyperflexing the mother's hips towards her abdomen to flatten the sacrum and rotate the symphysis pubis cephalad. - The question asks for the step *after* McRoberts maneuver, not the maneuver itself.

Q: Which of the following is not a high-risk pregnancy?

Age 25-30 years. ***Age 25-30 years*** - An age of **25-30 years** is generally considered the optimal reproductive age range, and pregnancies within this bracket are typically classified as low-risk based on age alone. - This age range carries the lowest statistical risk for both maternal and fetal complications, assuming no other co-morbidities. *Previous history of manual removal of placenta* - A previous history of manual removal of the placenta indicates a risk factor for **recurrent placental retention** or **morbidly adherent placenta** in future pregnancies, making it a high-risk factor. - This history suggests an increased likelihood of complications such as **postpartum hemorrhage** and can influence the management of subsequent deliveries. *Anemia* - **Anemia** in pregnancy, especially severe iron deficiency anemia, is considered a high-risk factor due to increased maternal and fetal morbidity. - It can lead to complications such as **preterm delivery**, **low birth weight**, and difficulties tolerating blood loss during delivery. *Diabetes mellitus* - **Diabetes mellitus**, whether pre-existing or gestational, makes a pregnancy high-risk due to potential adverse effects on both the mother and the fetus. - Risks include **preeclampsia**, **macrosomia**, **neonatal hypoglycemia**, and **congenital anomalies**.

Q: Blowout fracture of the orbit most commonly involves?

Floor. ***Floor*** - The **orbital floor** is the most commonly fractured site in a blowout fracture due to its thinness and location, often leading to herniation of orbital contents into the maxillary sinus. - This type of fracture often results from a **sudden increase in intraorbital pressure** by a blunt trauma, causing the weakest part of the orbit to give way. *Medial wall* - While less common than floor fractures, the **medial wall** can also be fractured in a blowout injury, leading to herniation into the ethmoid sinuses. - Involvement of the medial wall can sometimes damage the **lacrimal drainage system** or the medial rectus muscle. *Lateral wall* - The **lateral wall** of the orbit is significantly thicker and more robust than the floor or medial wall, making isolated lateral wall fractures extremely rare. - Fractures of the lateral wall are usually associated with more extensive **zygomaticomaxillary complex (ZMC)** fractures or high-impact trauma. *Roof* - The **orbital roof** is composed of the frontal bone and is considerably stronger and thicker than the floor, making roof fractures uncommon in isolated blowout injuries. - Fractures of the orbital roof typically occur with **severe trauma** and are often associated with intracranial injury or damage to the frontal sinus.

Q: Bernard–Soulier syndrome is caused by a deficiency of which glycoprotein complex?

Gp Ib-IX-V complex. ***Gp 1b*** - Bernard–Soulier syndrome is primarily caused by a deficiency in **Gp1b**, which is crucial for platelet adhesion to the von Willebrand factor (vWF) [1]. - This results in **thrombocytopenia** and large platelets, which are characteristic features of the syndrome. *Gp 2b/3a* - Gp2b/3a is associated with **Glanzmann thrombasthenia**, not Bernard–Soulier syndrome [1]. - This receptor is essential for platelet aggregation and binds fibrinogen, contributing to a different bleeding disorder. *TNF* - Tumor Necrosis Factor (TNF) is a cytokine involved in systemic inflammation and does not directly relate to platelet function or deficiencies. - Deficiency of TNF is unrelated to bleeding disorders like Bernard–Soulier syndrome. *vWf* - von Willebrand factor (vWf) deficiency is associated with **von Willebrand disease**, which presents differently than Bernard–Soulier syndrome. - vWf is essential for the aggregation of platelets but is not the deficient factor in this syndrome. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Red Blood Cell and Bleeding Disorders, pp. 668-669.

Q: In which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma are classical Reed-Sternberg cells most characteristically observed?

Mixed cellularity Hodgkin. ***Lymphocyte predominance*** - The **Hodgkin's lymphoma (HL) lymphocyte predominance** variant characteristically displays a predominance of lymphocytes in the cellular makeup [1]. - This subtype is often associated with a better prognosis and fewer symptoms than other types of HL [1]. *Lymphocyte depleted* - This subtype features a significant decrease in lymphocytes, leading to a **higher proportion of Reed-Sternberg cells** [3]. - It typically presents with a more aggressive clinical course, which contrasts with lymphocyte predominance [3]. *Mixed cellularity hodgkin* - Mixed cellularity shows a variety of cell types, including a significant number of **Reed-Sternberg cells**, but does not demonstrate **lymphocyte predominance** [2]. - This subtype is generally found in older patients and associated with advanced disease, unlike lymphocyte predominance [2]. *Nodular sclerosis* - Nodular sclerosis subtype is characterized by **collagen bands** and a particular architecture that is distinct from lymphocyte predominance [2]. - It primarily affects younger patients and can often involve mediastinal lymph nodes; however, it does not have the features of lymphocyte predominance [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, p. 618. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of White Blood Cells, Lymph Nodes, Spleen, and Thymus, pp. 616-618. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Diseases Of The Urinary And Male Genital Tracts, pp. 559-560.

Q: Which condition is associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

Female pseudohermaphroditism. ***Female pseudohermaphroditism*** - In **21-hydroxylase deficiency**, the most common form of CAH, virilization of a female fetus occurs due to excessive **androgen production** [2], [3]. - This leads to ambiguous genitalia in genetically female (XX) infants, presenting as **female pseudohermaphroditism** [2]. *Male pseudohermaphroditism* - This condition occurs when a **genetically male individual (XY)** has external genitalia that are undervirilized or ambiguous. - It is typically caused by inadequate **androgen synthesis** or action, such as in **androgen insensitivity syndrome**, which is not the primary presentation of CAH [2]. *True pseudohermaphroditism* - This term refers to individuals who possess both **ovarian and testicular tissue**, either in separate gonads or as ovotestes [1], [2]. - It is distinct from CAH, where gonadal tissue is uniform (either ovaries or testes), but the external genitalia are ambiguous due to hormonal imbalances [2]. *Sequential pseudohermaphroditism* - This term is not a recognized medical classification for conditions like CAH. - It does not describe a specific developmental anomaly of the reproductive system related to adrenal function.

Q: Which drug decreases the bone resorption in osteoporosis?

Risedronate. ***Risedronate*** - **Risedronate** is a **bisphosphonate**, a class of drugs that inhibits osteoclast activity, thereby decreasing **bone resorption**. - By reducing the rate at which bone is broken down, it helps to preserve **bone mineral density** in patients with osteoporosis. *Teriparatide* - **Teriparatide** is a **parathyroid hormone analog** that primarily works by stimulating **osteoblast activity** to promote new bone formation. - While it treats osteoporosis, its primary mechanism is **anabolic** (bone building), not directly decreasing bone resorption as its main effect. *Cortisone* - **Cortisone** is a **glucocorticoid** that can actually *worsen* osteoporosis by increasing **bone resorption** and decreasing **bone formation** with long-term use. - It is used to treat inflammatory conditions, not to decrease bone resorption for osteoporosis. *Cimetidine* - **Cimetidine** is an **H2-receptor antagonist** used to reduce stomach acid production, commonly for conditions like GERD or ulcers. - It has no known effect on **bone metabolism** or **osteoporosis**.

Q: Endothelin primarily acts through which type of receptors?

Endothelin receptor type A (ETA). ***Endothelin receptor type A (ETA)*** - **ETA receptors** are primarily responsible for the **vasoconstrictive effects** of endothelin-1 in various tissues, leading to increased vascular tone and blood pressure. - Activation of **ETA receptors** on vascular smooth muscle cells mediates signaling pathways that result in **smooth muscle contraction**. *Endothelin receptor type B (ETB)* - **ETB receptors** have dual roles, mediating both **vasoconstriction** (via smooth muscle ETB) and **vasodilation** (via endothelial ETB, stimulating nitric oxide and prostacyclin release). - They also play a significant role in **clearance of endothelin-1** from circulation. *General receptor type (GPCRs)* - While **endothelin receptors (ETA and ETB)** are indeed **G protein-coupled receptors (GPCRs)**, "General receptor type (GPCRs)" is too broad and not the most specific answer for how endothelin *primarily acts*. - Endothelin's specific effects are mediated through its dedicated subtypes of GPCRs, not the general class. *Calcium receptors* - **Calcium receptors** (e.g., calcium-sensing receptors) are involved in sensing extracellular calcium levels and regulating calcium homeostasis. - Endothelin's mechanism involves **intracellular calcium mobilization** *after* receptor activation, but it does not act *through* calcium receptors.

Question 1

Which chromosome is responsible for the production of MIF?

Accepted Answer

Chromosome 22

Answer

Y chromosome

Answer

Chromosome 16

Answer

X Chromosome

Question 2

What is meant by Superfecundation?

Accepted Answer

Fertilization of two or more ova in different intercourses in same menstrual cycle

Answer

Fertilization of ova and then its division

Answer

Fertilization of two or more ova in one intercourse

Answer

Fertilization of second ovum after first one is already implanted

Question 3

Which of these steps is followed first for the management of shoulder dystocia after McRoberts maneuver?

Accepted Answer

Suprapubic pressure

Answer

90 degree rotation of posterior shoulder

Answer

Emergency c-section

Answer

Sharp flexion of hip joints towards abdomen

Question 4

Which of the following is not a high-risk pregnancy?

Accepted Answer

Age 25-30 years

Answer

Diabetes mellitus

Answer

Previous history of manual removal of placenta

Answer

Anemia

Question 5

Blowout fracture of the orbit most commonly involves?

Accepted Answer

Floor

Answer

Medial wall

Answer

Lateral wall

Answer

Roof

Question 6

Bernard–Soulier syndrome is caused by a deficiency of which glycoprotein complex?

Accepted Answer

Gp Ib-IX-V complex

Answer

TNF

Answer

von Willebrand factor (vWf)

Answer

Gp IIb/IIIa

Question 7

In which type of Hodgkin's lymphoma are classical Reed-Sternberg cells most characteristically observed?

Accepted Answer

Mixed cellularity Hodgkin

Answer

Lymphocyte depleted

Answer

Nodular sclerosis

Answer

Lymphocyte predominance

Question 8

Which condition is associated with congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

Accepted Answer

Female pseudohermaphroditism

Answer

Male pseudohermaphroditism

Answer

True pseudohermaphroditism

Answer

Sequential pseudohermaphroditism

Question 9

Which drug decreases the bone resorption in osteoporosis?

Accepted Answer

Risedronate

Answer

Teriparatide

Answer

Cortisone

Answer

Cimetidine

Question 10

Endothelin primarily acts through which type of receptors?

Accepted Answer

Endothelin receptor type A (ETA)

Answer

Calcium receptors

Answer

General receptor type (GPCRs)

Answer

Endothelin receptor type B (ETB)

NEET-PG 2018

Biochemistry

Forensic Medicine

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Ophthalmology

Pathology

Pediatrics

Pharmacology

Physiology