Anatomy
1 questionsWhich bones form the floor of the nasal cavity in children?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 961: Which bones form the floor of the nasal cavity in children?
- A. Nasal bone and maxilla
- B. Vomer and ethmoid
- C. Palatine process of the maxilla and horizontal plate of the palatine bone (Correct Answer)
- D. Nasal crest of maxilla and palatine process of maxilla
Explanation: ***Palatine process of the maxilla and horizontal plate of the palatine bone*** - These two bones form the **hard palate**, which also serves as the **floor of the nasal cavity**. - The **palatine process of the maxilla** forms the anterior two-thirds, while the **horizontal plate of the palatine bone** forms the posterior one-third of the hard palate. *Vomer and ethmoid* - The **vomer** and part of the **ethmoid bone** (specifically the perpendicular plate) contribute to the **nasal septum**, which divides the nasal cavity. - They do not form the floor of the nasal cavity. *Nasal bone and maxilla* - The **nasal bones** form the **bridge of the nose** and part of the roof of the nasal cavity anteriorly. - While the **maxilla** contributes to the floor via its palatine process, the nasal bones do not. *Nasal crest of maxilla and palatine process of maxilla* - The **palatine process of the maxilla** does form part of the floor of the nasal cavity. - However, the **nasal crest of the maxilla** is part of the vomer's articulation and is involved in the septum, not the primary floor structure.
Community Medicine
1 questionsJapanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 961: Japanese encephalitis vaccine in routine schedule is given in how many doses -
- A. Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months) (Correct Answer)
- B. Single dose vaccine
- C. Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed
- D. Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose
Explanation: ***Two doses (at 9-12 months and 15-18 months)*** - The **routine JE vaccination schedule in India** as per NTAGI and IAP recommendations involves **two doses**. - **First dose** is given at **9-12 months** of age. - **Second dose** is administered at **15-18 months** (or up to 24 months), approximately **6-12 months after the first dose**. - This provides adequate long-term protection against Japanese encephalitis in endemic areas. *Single dose vaccine* - A single dose does **not provide adequate long-lasting protection** against Japanese encephalitis. - The **immune response** from a single dose is insufficient for routine immunization. - Two doses are required to ensure protective antibody levels. *Three doses 1 month apart followed by a booster if needed* - This schedule is **not part of the routine immunization program** for JE in India. - The standard routine schedule involves **only 2 primary doses**, not three. - Rapid three-dose schedules may be used in specific outbreak situations but not for routine immunization. *Three doses with the second dose 1 month and 3rd dose 6 months after the first dose* - This three-dose schedule is **not the routine JE vaccination schedule** in India. - This may be confused with schedules for other vaccines or older JE vaccine protocols. - The current **routine schedule requires only 2 doses** at specified age intervals.
Dermatology
4 questionsAcanthosis nigricans is characterized by all of the following except?
Which of the following organisms has a role to play in Seborrheic dermatitis?
Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?
What condition is suggested by eyelid papules and a hoarse cry in a child?
NEET-PG 2015 - Dermatology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 961: Acanthosis nigricans is characterized by all of the following except?
- A. Associated with thick skin with hyperpigmentation
- B. May be a sign of internal malignancy
- C. Common in obese people
- D. Histologically there is hypermelanosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Histologically there is hypermelanosis*** - This statement is **FALSE** and is the correct answer to this "EXCEPT" question - The characteristic dark appearance of acanthosis nigricans is **NOT due to increased melanin** (hypermelanosis) - Histologically, the key features are **hyperkeratosis, papillomatosis, and mild acanthosis** - There is typically **minimal or no increase in melanocytes or melanin pigment** - The hyperpigmentation seen clinically is an optical effect from the thickened, hyperkeratotic epidermis *May be a sign of internal malignancy* - This statement is **true**; acanthosis nigricans can be a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with internal malignancies - **Malignant acanthosis nigricans** is particularly associated with **gastrointestinal adenocarcinomas** (especially gastric) - This form typically has sudden onset, rapid progression, and more widespread involvement *Common in obese people* - This statement is **true**; acanthosis nigricans is frequently associated with **insulin resistance** - Commonly seen in individuals with **obesity, type 2 diabetes, and metabolic syndrome** - This benign form typically affects flexural areas (neck, axillae, groin) *Associated with thick skin with hyperpigmentation* - This statement is **true**; these are the hallmark clinical features of acanthosis nigricans - Presents as **velvety thickening** and **dark brown to black hyperpigmentation** - Typically affects intertriginous areas and skin folds
Question 962: Which of the following organisms has a role to play in Seborrheic dermatitis?
- A. Pityrosporum ovale (Correct Answer)
- B. Propionibacterium
- C. Candida albicans
- D. None of the above
Explanation: ***Pityrosporum ovale*** - **Pityrosporum ovale**, now known as **Malassezia furfur**, is a lipophilic yeast that colonizes the skin and plays a significant role in the pathogenesis of **seborrheic dermatitis**. - Its presence is commonly associated with the inflammatory response seen in seborrheic dermatitis, though the exact mechanism is not fully understood. *Candida albicans* - **Candida albicans** is a common cause of **mucocutaneous candidiasis** and **intertrigo**, but it is not directly implicated in the etiology of seborrheic dermatitis. - While it can cause skin infections, its typical presentation involves erythematous, macerated rashes with satellite lesions in skin folds. *Propionibacterium* - **Propionibacterium acnes**, now known as **Cutibacterium acnes**, is primarily associated with the pathogenesis of **acne vulgaris**. - It plays a role in the inflammation and comedone formation characteristic of acne, not the scaling and erythema of seborrheic dermatitis. *None of the above* - This option is incorrect because **Pityrosporum ovale (Malassezia furfur)** is a well-recognized organism involved in seborrheic dermatitis. - The other organisms listed are associated with different dermatological conditions.
Question 963: Pruritus is a feature of which of the following conditions?
- A. Pemphigus foliaceous
- B. Pemphigus vulgaris
- C. Bullous pemphigoid (Correct Answer)
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Bullous pemphigoid*** - **Pruritus**, often severe, is a common and early symptom of bullous pemphigoid, often preceding the appearance of skin lesions. - The disease involves autoantibodies against **hemidesmosomal proteins** (BPAG1, BPAG2), leading to subepidermal blister formation. *Pemphigus foliaceous* - This condition is characterized by **superficial blistering** and erosions, but **pruritus is typically mild or absent**. - Blisters form in the **granular layer of the epidermis** due to autoantibodies against desmoglein 1. *Pemphigus vulgaris* - Patients with pemphigus vulgaris present with **flaccid blisters and erosions**, mainly affecting the skin and mucous membranes, but **pruritus is not a prominent feature**. - The disease involves intraepidermal blistering caused by autoantibodies targeting **desmoglein 3 (and sometimes desmoglein 1)**. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect, as **pruritus is a characteristic symptom of bullous pemphigoid**.
Question 964: What condition is suggested by eyelid papules and a hoarse cry in a child?
- A. Croup
- B. Lipoid proteinosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Acrodermatitis enteropathica
- D. Congenital syphilis
Explanation: ***Lipoid proteinosis*** - This condition is characterized by **hoarseness from infancy** due to deposition in the vocal cords and characteristic **beaded papules on the eyelids** (moniliform blepharosis). - Also known as **Urbach-Wiethe disease**, it is a rare autosomal recessive disorder resulting from mutations in the **ECM1 gene**, leading to abnormal deposition of hyaline material in various tissues. *Croup* - Croup typically presents with a **barking cough** and **stridor**, often following a viral upper respiratory infection. - It does not cause eyelid papules or chronic hoarseness from infancy, but rather acute respiratory distress. *Acrodermatitis enteropathica* - This is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of **zinc malabsorption**, leading to a classic triad of **dermatitis**, **diarrhea**, and **alopecia**. - It does not involve eyelid papules or hoarseness as primary features. *Congenital syphilis* - Congenital syphilis can cause a wide range of manifestations, including skin rashes, bone abnormalities, and rhinitis ("snuffles"), but eyelid papules and chronic hoarseness are not typical presenting features. - Diagnosis is usually confirmed by serological tests for syphilis.
Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following is used to decrease the duration and severity of acute diarrhea?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 961: Which of the following is used to decrease the duration and severity of acute diarrhea?
- A. Zn (Correct Answer)
- B. Mg
- C. Fe
- D. Ca
Explanation: ***Zn*** - **Zinc supplementation** has been shown to reduce the **duration** and **severity** of acute diarrhea, particularly in children in developing countries [1]. - It plays a crucial role in **immune function** and **intestinal integrity**, which helps in recovery from diarrheal episodes [1]. *Mg* - **Magnesium** is an essential mineral, but it is not directly used to decrease the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - In fact, high doses of magnesium can act as a **laxative** and may worsen diarrhea. *Fe* - **Iron** is vital for red blood cell formation and oxygen transport, but it does not directly impact the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - Iron supplementation is primarily used to treat **anemia**. *Ca* - **Calcium** is important for bone health and various metabolic processes, but it is not a primary intervention for reducing the duration or severity of acute diarrhea. - While sometimes used for mild digestive issues, it does not have the same evidence base as zinc for acute diarrhea.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsWhat is the recommended dose of folic acid for a patient with a history of neural tube defect (NTD) in a previous pregnancy?
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 961: What is the recommended dose of folic acid for a patient with a history of neural tube defect (NTD) in a previous pregnancy?
- A. 0.5 mg
- B. 1 mg
- C. 2 mg
- D. 4 mg (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***4 mg*** - For women with a prior history of a **neural tube defect (NTD)-affected pregnancy**, a higher dose of **4 mg of folic acid daily** is recommended to significantly reduce the risk of recurrence. - This increased dosage is crucial for achieving adequate maternal folate levels to prevent NTDs, starting at least one month before conception and continuing through the first trimester. *0.5 mg* - This dose is lower than the standard recommendation for women without a history of NTDs and is insufficient for high-risk individuals. - Suboptimal folic acid levels can still lead to a higher risk of NTD recurrence in patients with a history of NTD-affected pregnancies. *1 mg* - While 1 mg is higher than the general recommendation, it is still insufficient for women with a **history of NTD in a previous pregnancy**. - Current guidelines suggest a significantly higher dose for secondary prevention due to altered folate metabolism or higher requirements in these individuals. *2 mg* - This dose is also lower than the **established recommendation for high-risk women** who have had a previous NTD-affected pregnancy. - It does not provide the optimal level of protection required to reduce the risk of recurrence effectively.
Pediatrics
2 questionsWhich test is used to diagnose congenital syphilis in a newborn born to a syphilitic mother?
Most common site for bone marrow aspiration in neonates is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 961: Which test is used to diagnose congenital syphilis in a newborn born to a syphilitic mother?
- A. Detection of IgG
- B. ZN staining
- C. Detection of IgM (Correct Answer)
- D. FTA-ABS test
Explanation: ***Detection of IgM*** - The presence of **IgM antibodies** in a newborn suggests active infection because maternal IgM does not cross the placenta. - This indicates the newborn's immune system has produced its own antibodies in response to *Treponema pallidum* infection. *Detection of IgG* - **Maternal IgG antibodies can cross the placenta**, so detecting IgG in a newborn does not differentiate between passive transfer from the mother and active newborn infection. - While total IgG might be elevated due to infection, specific IgM is a more reliable indicator of active congenital syphilis. *ZN staining* - **Ziehl-Neelsen (ZN) staining** is used to identify **acid-fast bacteria**, such as *Mycobacterium tuberculosis*, not spirochetes like *Treponema pallidum*. - *Treponema pallidum* is typically visualized using darkfield microscopy or silver stains due to its thin, helical shape. *FTA-ABS test* - The **Fluorescent Treponemal Antibody Absorption (FTA-ABS)** test detects specific antibodies against *Treponema pallidum* but primarily measures IgG, which can be maternally transferred. - While it confirms exposure, an IgM-specific FTA-ABS would be more definitive for congenital syphilis, but the general FTA-ABS test alone is not sufficient to diagnose active infection in a newborn.
Question 962: Most common site for bone marrow aspiration in neonates is -
- A. Anterior superior iliac crest
- B. Posterior superior iliac crest
- C. Sternum
- D. Anteromedial tibia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anteromedial tibia*** - The **anteromedial tibia** is the preferred site in neonates due to its relatively **large marrow cavity**, superficial location, and reduced risk of vital organ injury. - This site is easily accessible and provides a good yield of marrow cells, making it suitable for diagnostic purposes in newborns. *Anterior superior iliac crest* - While a common site for bone marrow aspiration in older children and adults, the **anterior superior iliac crest** can be more challenging and poses a greater risk in neonates due to their smaller bone structures. - The iliac crest offers less bony prominence and a thinner cortex in neonates, increasing the difficulty of the procedure and potential for sampling error. *Posterior superior iliac crest* - The **posterior superior iliac crest** is another common site in older children and adults but is generally avoided in neonates due to the difficulty in positioning and the risk of damaging vital structures in the vicinity. - It requires prone positioning and offers less superficial bone, making it a less practical and safe choice for neonates compared to the tibia. *Sternum* - **Sternal aspiration** is generally contraindicated in neonates and young children due to the thinness of the sternal bone and proximity to vital structures like the heart and great vessels. - There is a high risk of **perforation** of the sternum and injury to underlying organs, making this site unsafe for bone marrow aspiration in this age group.