Internal Medicine
7 questionsA patient with first-degree heart block presents with dizziness. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
Which of the following is not typically used for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction?
Which of the following is not recommended for patients with coronary artery disease?
Which one of the following is not an early complication of acute myocardial infarction?
In the context of chest pain evaluation, which is the best way to differentiate between stable angina and NSTEMI?
Murmur heard in aortic stenosis
Which of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: A patient with first-degree heart block presents with dizziness. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
- A. Observation and investigation of other causes (Correct Answer)
- B. Pacemaker insertion
- C. Isoprenaline
- D. Atropine
Explanation: ***Observation and investigation of other causes*** - **First-degree heart block** is usually **asymptomatic** and benign, rarely causing dizziness or other symptoms. - The dizziness experienced by the patient is likely due to another underlying condition and warrants **further investigation** rather than direct intervention for the heart block [2], [3]. *Pacemaker insertion* - **Pacemaker insertion** is reserved for **symptomatic heart blocks** of higher degrees (e.g., Mobitz II or complete heart block) or those with significant hemodynamic compromise [1]. - Given that first-degree heart block is typically asymptomatic, inserting a pacemaker would be an **overtreatment** and unnecessary for this condition alone. *Isoprenaline* - **Isoprenaline** is a **beta-agonist** that increases heart rate and AV conduction, sometimes used in certain bradyarrhythmias. - However, for first-degree heart block, which is generally benign, pharmacologic intervention with agents like **isoprenaline** is not typically indicated and carries risks of adverse effects [2]. *Atropine* - **Atropine** is an anticholinergic drug used to **increase heart rate** by blocking vagal stimulation of the SA and AV nodes. - While it can improve AV conduction, it is not indicated for **asymptomatic first-degree heart block** or when symptoms like dizziness are unlikely to be directly caused by the block itself.
Question 912: Which of the following is not typically used for secondary prevention of myocardial infarction?
- A. Aspirin
- B. Statins
- C. Beta blockers
- D. Warfarin (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Warfarin*** - While Warfarin is an **anticoagulant**, its primary role is in preventing *thromboembolism* in conditions like **atrial fibrillation** [1] or **mechanical heart valves**, not routinely for general **secondary prevention of MI** unless specific indications exist. - Unlike the other options, it doesn't directly address the underlying plaque rupture or reduce the workload of the heart in the typical post-MI patient. *Aspirin* - **Aspirin** is a cornerstone of secondary prevention after MI due to its **antiplatelet** effects, which help prevent future clot formation [2]. - It reduces the risk of recurrent MI, stroke, and cardiovascular death by inhibiting **platelet aggregation** [2]. *Statins* - **Statins** are crucial for secondary prevention as they aggressively lower **LDL cholesterol** levels, stabilizing existing plaques and preventing further plaque progression. - They have pleiotropic effects beyond lipid lowering, including **anti-inflammatory** and **endothelial function improvement**. *Beta blockers* - **Beta blockers** reduce myocardial oxygen demand by decreasing heart rate and contractility, which helps prevent recurrent ischemic events and improves survival post-MI [3]. - They are particularly beneficial in patients with **left ventricular dysfunction** or **hypertension** following an MI [1].
Question 913: Which of the following is not recommended for patients with coronary artery disease?
- A. Vitamin E (Correct Answer)
- B. Potassium
- C. Statins
- D. Daily exercise
Explanation: ***Vitamin E*** - **Vitamin E supplements** are generally not recommended for patients with coronary artery disease (CAD) based on current evidence. Some studies suggest a potential link between high doses of vitamin E and an increased risk of **heart failure** or even **overall mortality**. - There is no convincing evidence that vitamin E supplements provide cardiovascular benefits in patients with established CAD, and they may interfere with the efficacy of other beneficial medications like **statins**. *Daily exercise* - **Regular physical activity** is a cornerstone of CAD management, improving cardiovascular fitness, reducing blood pressure, and aiding in weight control [1]. - It helps in preventing disease progression and reducing the risk of future cardiovascular events when performed under appropriate medical guidance [1]. *Potassium* - Maintaining adequate **potassium levels** is crucial for patients with CAD, especially those on diuretics, as it helps regulate **blood pressure** and prevents **cardiac arrhythmias**. - Dietary sources of potassium (fruits, vegetables) are preferred, and supplementation may be necessary for those with deficiencies, but always under medical supervision. *Statins* - **Statins** are a class of medications widely recommended for patients with CAD due to their ability to significantly lower **LDL cholesterol** levels and reduce cardiovascular events [1]. - They stabilize **atherosclerotic plaques** and reduce inflammation, playing a critical role in secondary prevention of heart attacks and strokes [1].
Question 914: Which one of the following is not an early complication of acute myocardial infarction?
- A. Pericarditis
- B. Papillary muscle dysfunction
- C. Ventricular septal defect
- D. Dressler's syndrome (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Dressler's syndrome*** - **Dressler's syndrome** (post-myocardial infarction syndrome) is a **late complication** of acute myocardial infarction, typically occurring weeks to months after the event. - It is an **immune-mediated pericarditis**, characterized by chest pain, fever, and pericardial effusion, but is not seen immediately following an MI. *Papillary muscle dysfunction* - **Papillary muscle dysfunction** or rupture can occur as an **early complication** due to ischemia and necrosis of the muscle, leading to **mitral regurgitation** [1]. - This usually manifests within hours to days of the infarct, especially in **inferior MIs** affecting the posterior papillary muscle. *Ventricular septal defect* - A **ventricular septal defect (VSD)** is an **early mechanical complication** resulting from necrosis and rupture of the interventricular septum. - It typically presents within the **first week** after an MI, causing a new **holosystolic murmur** and signs of heart failure. *Pericarditis* - **Early pericarditis** (within a few days of MI) results from inflammation overlying the necrotic myocardial tissue [1]. - It presents with **pleuritic chest pain** that improves with leaning forward and a **pericardial friction rub**, and is distinct from Dressler's syndrome.
Question 915: In the context of chest pain evaluation, which is the best way to differentiate between stable angina and NSTEMI?
- A. ECG
- B. Cardiac-biomarker (Correct Answer)
- C. Trans thoracic Echocardiography
- D. Multi uptake gated Acquisition scan
Explanation: **Cardiac-biomarker** - **Cardiac biomarkers**, particularly **troponin**, are crucial for differentiating between **unstable angina** and **NSTEMI** [1], [2]. In NSTEMI, there is evidence of **myocardial necrosis**, leading to elevated cardiac troponins [2]. - **Stable angina** and **unstable angina** do not involve myocardial necrosis, so troponin levels remain within the normal range [1]. *ECG* - While an **ECG** is essential in the initial assessment of chest pain, it may show **non-specific changes** in both **unstable angina** and **NSTEMI**, such as T-wave inversions or ST-segment depression [2]. - The definitive distinction of **NSTEMI** often relies on **sequential biomarker measurements**, as ECG changes alone may not be sufficient for diagnosis or differentiation from unstable angina [2]. *Trans thoracic Echocardiography* - **Echocardiography** can show **regional wall motion abnormalities** that might suggest ischemia, but these findings are not specific enough to differentiate between **stable angina** and **NSTEMI** immediately. - It is more useful for assessing **ventricular function**, identifying **valvular disease**, or detecting other causes of chest pain, rather than acute differentiation of coronary syndromes. *Multi uptake gated Acquisition scan* - A **MUGA scan** assesses **left ventricular ejection fraction** and wall motion, primarily used in evaluating global cardiac function and monitoring cardiotoxicity from chemotherapy. - It is **not a first-line diagnostic tool** for differentiating between acute coronary syndromes like **stable angina** and **NSTEMI** because it does not directly detect acute myocardial injury.
Question 916: Murmur heard in aortic stenosis
- A. Apex, low pitch murmur associated with mitral valve issues
- B. Pan-systolic murmur, high pitch murmur associated with mitral regurgitation
- C. Left Sternal area, murmur indicating mitral regurgitation
- D. Right 2nd intercostal, high pitch systolic ejection murmur (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Right 2nd intercostal, high pitch systolic ejection murmur*** - The murmur of **aortic stenosis** is classically heard loudest at the **right second intercostal space** (aortic area) due to turbulent flow through the stenosed aortic valve. - It is a **high-pitched, systolic ejection murmur** with a crescendo-decrescendo pattern, often radiating to the carotid arteries [2]. *Apex, low pitch murmur associated with mitral valve issues* - A murmur heard at the **apex** that is low-pitched typically suggests **mitral stenosis**, which is a diastolic rumble, not an aortic stenosis murmur [1]. - This option refers to characteristics associated with **mitral valve disease**, not aortic stenosis. *Pan-systolic murmur, high pitch murmur associated with mitral regurgitation* - A **pan-systolic murmur** is characteristic of conditions like **mitral regurgitation** or tricuspid regurgitation, where blood flows throughout the entire systole [3]. - While it can be high-pitched, its pan-systolic nature and association with mitral regurgitation make it distinct from aortic stenosis. *Left Sternal area, murmur indicating mitral regurgitation* - Murmurs heard primarily at the **left sternal area** can indicate various conditions, but this option specifically points to **mitral regurgitation**. - **Mitral regurgitation** is better heard at the apex and usually radiates to the axilla, and the description does not fit the typical presentation of aortic stenosis [3].
Question 917: Which of the following statements about atrial myxomas is correct?
- A. More prevalent in males.
- B. Most myxomas are hereditary.
- C. Most commonly found in the Left Atrium. (Correct Answer)
- D. Distant metastasis is commonly observed.
Explanation: ***Most commonly found in the Left Atrium.*** - **Atrial myxomas** are typically found in the **left atrium** (approximately 75-80% of cases), often attached to the **interatrial septum** near the fossa ovalis. - Their presence in the left atrium can lead to **obstruction of the mitral valve**, causing symptoms mimicking mitral stenosis [1]. *More prevalent in males.* - **Atrial myxomas** are more common in **females** than males, with a female-to-male ratio of approximately 2:1. - This higher prevalence in women is a consistent finding in epidemiological studies of cardiac myxomas [2]. *Most myxomas are hereditary.* - The vast majority of **atrial myxomas** are **sporadic** (non-hereditary), accounting for about 90-95% of cases. - A small percentage (5-10%) are part of a familial syndrome known as **Carney complex**, which is an autosomal dominant disorder. *Distant metastasis is commonly observed.* - **Atrial myxomas** are generally **benign tumors** and do not metastasize to distant sites. - While they can embolize fragments, leading to systemic effects, these are not true metastases.
Pathology
2 questionsMost common malignant tumor of the heart in adults
Aetiology of Dressler Syndrome is
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: Most common malignant tumor of the heart in adults
- A. Cardiac Sarcoma (Correct Answer)
- B. Paraganglioma
- C. Rhabdomyoma
- D. Lipoma
Explanation: ***Cardiac Sarcoma*** - **Cardiac sarcomas** are the most common type of **primary malignant tumor** of the heart in adults, accounting for about 95% of primary malignant cardiac tumors. - **Angiosarcoma** is the most common subtype (approximately 33-50% of all cardiac sarcomas), typically originating from the **right atrium**. - These tumors are highly aggressive with rapid growth, early metastasis, and poor prognosis. - They commonly present with right-sided heart failure, pericardial effusion, or constitutional symptoms. *Rhabdomyoma* - **Rhabdomyomas** are the most common **primary cardiac tumors in infants and children** (60-80% of pediatric cardiac tumors), not adults. - These tumors are **benign** and strongly associated with tuberous sclerosis. - They often spontaneously regress after birth. *Lipoma* - **Lipomas** are **benign tumors** composed of mature adipocytes and account for about 10% of benign cardiac tumors. - They are typically asymptomatic and found incidentally. - They are not malignant and therefore not relevant to this question about malignant tumors. *Paraganglioma* - **Paragangliomas** (pheochromocytomas of the heart) are rare neuroendocrine tumors. - They are typically **benign** (though can be locally invasive) and may be hormonally active, causing catecholamine-related symptoms. - They represent less than 1% of cardiac tumors and are not the most common malignant cardiac tumor.
Question 912: Aetiology of Dressler Syndrome is
- A. Autoimmune (Correct Answer)
- B. Toxin mediated
- C. Viral infection
- D. Idiopathic cause
Explanation: ***Autoimmune*** - Dressler syndrome is a form of **pericarditis** that occurs several days to weeks after myocardial injury (e.g., myocardial infarction, cardiac surgery, trauma). [3] - It is considered an **autoimmune phenomenon** where the body's immune system attacks damaged cardiac tissue. [1] *Viral infection* - While viral infections can cause general pericarditis, Dressler syndrome specifically refers to **post-cardiac injury** inflammation, not direct viral involvement. [2], [3] - Viral pericarditis typically has a more acute presentation without a preceding cardiac event. [2] *Toxin mediated* - There is no evidence to suggest that Dressler syndrome is caused by **toxins** or toxic substances. - The pathogenesis is linked to an immune response to damaged myocardial cells. *Idiopathic cause* - While some forms of pericarditis are idiopathic, Dressler syndrome has a clear **triggering event** (cardiac injury) and a well-understood autoimmune mechanism. [3] - Therefore, it is not classified as idiopathic. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of the Immune System, pp. 214-215. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 581-582. [3] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Problems From Cardiovascular Disease, pp. 297-298.
Pharmacology
1 questionsDigitalis is used in mitral stenosis to control the ventricular rate when the patient develops which condition?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 911: Digitalis is used in mitral stenosis to control the ventricular rate when the patient develops which condition?
- A. Atrial fibrillation (Correct Answer)
- B. Right ventricular failure
- C. Acute pulmonary edema
- D. Myocarditis
Explanation: ***Atrial fibrillation*** - **Digitalis** (digoxin) is effective in **slowing the ventricular rate** in atrial fibrillation by increasing vagal tone and prolonging the refractory period of the AV node. - In **mitral stenosis**, an uncontrolled rapid ventricular rate due to atrial fibrillation can significantly reduce cardiac output and worsen symptoms. *Right ventricular failure* - While digitalis can improve contractility, its primary role in **RV failure** is not rate control; diuretics and afterload reduction are more commonly used. - A patient with isolated right ventricular failure due to mitral stenosis would not directly benefit from digitalis for rate control. *Acute pulmonary edema* - **Acute pulmonary edema** requires rapid diuresis, oxygen, and vasodilators to reduce preload and afterload. - Digitalis has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line treatment for acute pulmonary edema, especially if the cause is not related to a rapid ventricular rate. *Myocarditis* - **Myocarditis** is an inflammation of the heart muscle, and digitalis is generally avoided due to concerns about potentially worsening arrhythmias and myocardial damage in an inflamed heart. - Treatment for myocarditis focuses on supportive care and addressing the underlying cause, not rate control with digitalis unless specific arrhythmias develop.