Community Medicine
10 questionsWhich category waste is disposed in red bags?
Which of the following is not typically incinerated?
In immediate disaster response management (first 24-48 hours), which of the following is not typically practiced?
Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?
According to the ICDS scheme, what is the recommended population range for establishing one Anganwadi centre in rural areas?
Which of the following statements about ASHA workers is NOT true?
Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?
Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?
Which of the following statements about the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV) is correct?
NEET-PG 2015 - Community Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 901: Which category waste is disposed in red bags?
- A. Glassware and metallic implants (Category 2)
- B. Human anatomical waste (Category 1)
- C. Contaminated recyclable waste (Category 3) (Correct Answer)
- D. Pharmaceutical waste (Category 4)
Explanation: ***Contaminated recyclable waste (Category 3)*** - **Red bags** are specifically designated for the disposal of **contaminated recyclable waste**, which includes items like tubing, catheters, intravenous sets, and soiled plastic bottles. - This waste is often contaminated with blood or body fluids but can be sterilized and recycled after proper treatment. *Human anatomical waste (Category 1)* - **Human anatomical waste**, such as tissues, organs, body parts, and fetuses, is typically disposed of in **yellow bags**. - This category usually requires incineration or deep burial due to its biological hazard. *Glassware and metallic implants (Category 2)* - **Glassware** (e.g., broken glass, used vials) and **metallic implants** (e.g., orthopedic implants) are typically disposed of in puncture-proof containers, often **blue** or transparent bins, for safe handling and potential recycling. - These items are separated to prevent injuries and facilitate specific recycling or treatment methods. *Pharmaceutical waste (Category 4)* - **Pharmaceutical waste** includes discarded medicines, expired drugs, and cytotoxic drugs, and it is usually collected in **yellow bags** or designated labeled containers. - Its disposal requires specific chemical treatment, incineration, or secure landfilling to prevent environmental contamination.
Question 902: Which of the following is not typically incinerated?
- A. Animal waste
- B. Broken thermometers (Correct Answer)
- C. Infected solid waste
- D. Human anatomical waste
Explanation: ***Broken thermometers*** - **Broken thermometers** often contain **mercury**, which, when incinerated, releases **toxic mercury vapor** into the atmosphere. - This poses a severe environmental and health hazard, requiring them to be handled as **hazardous waste** and recycled or disposed of in specialized facilities to prevent mercury release. *Human anatomical waste* - **Human anatomical waste**, including body parts, tissues, and recognizable organs, is highly infectious and poses significant biohazard risks. - **Incineration** is the preferred method for its disposal to ensure complete destruction of pathogens and reduce environmental contamination. *Animal waste* - **Animal waste** from research or healthcare settings (e.g., infected animal carcasses, bedding with animal excreta) is considered **biohazardous**. - **Incineration** effectively neutralizes pathogens and reduces the volume of such waste, preventing disease transmission. *Infected solid waste* - **Infected solid waste**, such as bandages, swabs, and disposable medical devices contaminated with blood or bodily fluids, carries a high risk of spreading infectious diseases. - **Incineration** at high temperatures ensures sterilization and safe disposal of these materials, destroying pathogenic microorganisms.
Question 903: In immediate disaster response management (first 24-48 hours), which of the following is not typically practiced?
- A. Rehabilitation
- B. Triage
- C. Mass vaccination (Correct Answer)
- D. Search and rescue
Explanation: ***Mass vaccination*** - **Mass vaccination** is typically a strategy for **preparedness/prevention phase** or **post-disaster disease prevention**, not an immediate disaster response activity. - Immediate disaster response focuses on **saving lives, providing emergency medical care, establishing shelter, and restoring critical infrastructure**, rather than large-scale preventative health campaigns. - Mass vaccination requires **planning, logistics, cold chain management**, which are incompatible with chaotic immediate response scenarios. *Triage* - **Triage** is a **critical and immediate** component of disaster response, involving the **prioritization of injured patients** for treatment based on severity and survival likelihood. - It ensures limited resources are allocated effectively to **maximize lives saved** during the acute phase. - Typically uses **color-coded tags** (red-immediate, yellow-delayed, green-minor, black-deceased). *Rehabilitation* - While **rehabilitation** is part of the **recovery phase** (weeks to months post-disaster), **early rehabilitation activities** may begin during the immediate response period. - Basic rehabilitation services like **mobility aids, psychological first aid**, can be initiated alongside acute care. - This makes it partially practiced even in immediate response, unlike mass vaccination which is never immediate. *Search and rescue* - **Search and rescue** is the **primary immediate response activity**, focusing on locating and extracting survivors from disaster-affected areas. - Time-critical operation following the **"golden period"** principle where survival rates decrease rapidly after 72 hours. - Involves specialized teams with equipment for **debris removal, victim location, and emergency extraction**.
Question 904: Which of the following statements about Anganwadi workers is incorrect?
- A. Training for 40 days
- B. Under ICDS scheme
- C. Mostly female
- D. Covers a population of 2000 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Covers a population of 2000*** - An **Anganwadi center** typically covers a population of **1000** in rural and urban areas, and **700** in tribal areas, not 2000. - This statement is incorrect because the specified population coverage is double the standard norm for an Anganwadi center. *Mostly female* - The vast majority of **Anganwadi workers** are **women** from the local community. - This is a correct statement, reflecting the gender composition of the Anganwadi workforce. *Training for 40 days* - **Anganwadi workers** undergo an initial **training program of 40 days**. - This statement is correct, outlining the standard duration of their foundational training. *Under ICDS scheme* - **Anganwadi centers** are a crucial part of the **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme**. - This statement is correct, as the ICDS scheme established and oversees Anganwadi centers to provide health, nutrition, and early childhood education services.
Question 905: According to the ICDS scheme, what is the recommended population range for establishing one Anganwadi centre in rural areas?
- A. 700-1000 (Urban)
- B. 1000-1500 (Urban high density)
- C. 300-800 (Hilly/Tribal areas)
- D. 400-800 (Rural) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***400-800 (Rural)*** - The **Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS)** scheme recommends one Anganwadi centre for a population of **400-800** in **rural areas**. - This is the **standard population norm** as per ICDS guidelines for establishing Anganwadi centres in typical rural settings. - This ensures adequate coverage and accessibility of ICDS services (nutrition, immunization, health check-ups, and preschool education) for mothers and children. *700-1000 (Urban)* - This population range (**700-1000**) is the standard norm for **urban areas**, not rural areas. - Urban areas have higher population density, hence a slightly larger population range is used per Anganwadi centre. - The question specifically asks about **rural areas**, making this option incorrect. *300-800 (Hilly/Tribal areas)* - This range (**300-800**) is designated for **hilly, difficult terrain, or specific tribal areas** where geographical challenges and scattered populations require lower population norms. - While this includes rural characteristics, it represents **special category areas**, not standard rural areas as asked in the question. *1000-1500 (Urban high density)* - A population target of **1000-1500** would be too high even for standard urban norms and doesn't align with official ICDS guidelines. - This is not applicable to **rural areas** as specified in the question.
Question 906: Which of the following statements about ASHA workers is NOT true?
- A. Local resident
- B. Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC
- C. Works per 1000 people of an area
- D. Education at least till 4th class or higher (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Education at least till 4th class or higher*** - This statement is **NOT true**. The educational qualification for an ASHA worker is typically stated as **8th class or higher**, not 4th class. - While flexibility may exist in some remote areas, the general guideline requires a higher level of foundational education. *Informs about birth and deaths in her village to PHC* - This is a true statement regarding an ASHA worker's responsibilities, as they are crucial for **community-level data collection** and reporting to the **Primary Health Center (PHC)**. - ASHAs play a vital role in health surveillance, including reporting **births, deaths, and disease outbreaks**. *Local resident* - This is a true characteristic of an ASHA worker; they must be a **resident of the village** they serve. - Being a local resident ensures **community trust**, cultural understanding, and accessibility to the population. *Works per 1000 people of an area* - This is a true statement outlining the typical **population coverage** for an ASHA worker. - ASHAs are typically appointed to serve a population of approximately **1000 people** in rural areas to ensure adequate reach and support.
Question 907: Which of the following is NOT a duty of an ASHA worker?
- A. Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV (Correct Answer)
- B. Assessing the success of national programs under ANM
- C. Primary screening for prevalence of non-communicable diseases
- D. All of the options
Explanation: ***Correct: Administering zero dose of DPT and OPV*** - **ASHA workers do NOT administer vaccines** - this is strictly beyond their scope of practice - According to **NRHM guidelines**, ASHAs are **facilitators and mobilizers** for immunization, not vaccine administrators - Only **ANMs and trained health workers** are authorized to administer vaccines including DPT and OPV - ASHAs role is to **identify beneficiaries, create awareness, and escort mothers/children to immunization centers** - Vaccine administration requires technical training and cold chain management that ASHAs are not equipped for *Incorrect: Assessing the success of national programs under ANM* - While this is also not a primary ASHA duty, the question asks for what is NOT a duty - Program assessment is done at district/state levels through monitoring and evaluation teams - However, between administering vaccines (strictly prohibited) vs program assessment (not their role but may provide data), vaccine administration is more clearly NOT their duty *Incorrect: Primary screening for prevalence of non-communicable diseases* - This **IS a duty** of ASHA workers under **NPCDCS** (National Programme for Prevention and Control of Cancer, Diabetes, CVD and Stroke) - ASHAs conduct basic screening for hypertension, diabetes, and common cancers using simple tools - They refer suspected cases to appropriate health facilities for confirmation and management *Incorrect: All of the options* - This is incorrect because primary NCD screening IS part of ASHA duties, and administering vaccines is the most clearly defined non-duty among the options
Question 908: Swajaldhara programme is associated with:
- A. Provision of safe drinking water (Correct Answer)
- B. Provision of food supplements for destitute women
- C. Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse
- D. Provision of health care for sick tribals
Explanation: ***Provision of safe drinking water*** - The **Swajaldhara programme** was launched by the Government of India in 2002 to accelerate coverage of **drinking water supply** in rural areas - Its primary objective was to ensure access to **safe and sustainable drinking water sources** through community participation and decentralized management - The program emphasized local ownership with communities contributing 10% of project costs *Provision of food supplements for destitute women* - Food security programs for women fall under separate social welfare schemes like ICDS and PDS - The **Swajaldhara programme** was specifically focused on **water supply infrastructure**, not nutrition *Provision of relief for victim of sexual abuse* - Relief for victims of sexual abuse is addressed through **justice and women's safety initiatives** (e.g., One Stop Centres, Nirbhaya Fund) - This is unrelated to the water supply mandate of Swajaldhara *Provision of health care for sick tribals* - Health care for tribal populations is managed through dedicated programs under the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare - Swajaldhara's scope was limited to **rural drinking water infrastructure**, not healthcare delivery
Question 909: Which of the following screening methods is primarily used under the National Tuberculosis Elimination Program (NTEP)?
- A. Active
- B. Passive (Correct Answer)
- C. Mass
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Passive*** - Under the NTEP, **passive screening** involves individuals presenting to health facilities with symptoms suggestive of TB. - This method relies on **patient self-reporting** and healthcare provider suspicion, rather than active outreach. - Passive case finding is the **primary screening strategy** used across the general population in the NTEP framework. *Active* - **Active screening** involves community-based interventions to proactively identify individuals with TB, often in high-risk populations. - While active case finding is crucial for specific vulnerable groups (contacts, HIV patients, etc.), it is **not the primary screening method** under the standard NTEP framework for initial detection across the entire population. *Mass* - **Mass screening** involves testing large numbers of people in the general population, regardless of symptoms, to detect disease. - This is generally **cost-prohibitive** and not routinely implemented as a primary screening strategy for TB by the NTEP due to resource limitations and low yield in the general population. *None of the options* - **Passive screening** is indeed a primary method used under the NTEP, making this option incorrect. - The NTEP heavily relies on individuals seeking care when they experience symptoms, which aligns with the definition of passive case finding.
Question 910: Which of the following statements about the Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV) is correct?
- A. Administered at birth
- B. Recommended for individuals with sickle cell disease (Correct Answer)
- C. Widely used in the general population
- D. Derived from live attenuated pneumococcal bacteria
Explanation: ***Recommended for individuals with sickle cell disease*** - Individuals with **sickle cell disease** are at significantly increased risk of severe and invasive **pneumococcal infections** due to **functional asplenia**. - The PPV is crucial for providing **prophylactic protection** against these life-threatening infections in this vulnerable population. *Administered at birth* - The **Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)** is part of routine childhood immunizations and is administered at specific ages, but neither PCV nor PPV is given **at birth**. - **PCV** is typically given starting at **2 months of age**, while **PPV** is generally recommended for older children and adults at high risk. *Widely used in the general population* - The **Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)** is widely used in the general *pediatric* population as part of routine immunization schedules. - The **Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine (PPV)** is primarily recommended for **adults 65 years and older** and individuals with certain **underlying medical conditions** or compromised immune systems, not the general population. *Derived from live attenuated pneumococcal bacteria* - The **PPV** is a **polysaccharide vaccine**, meaning it is composed of purified capsular polysaccharides from various serotypes of *Streptococcus pneumoniae*. - It is an **inactivated vaccine** and does not contain live attenuated bacteria; such a vaccine would be contraindicated in immunocompromised individuals.