Anatomy
10 questionsArch of aorta begins at which vertebral level?
Intercostal nerve is a branch of?
Inversion and eversion of foot occurs at which joint
All veins open in sinus venarum except -
Which of the following statements about the atrioventricular groove is true?
Which artery is primarily responsible for supplying the head and neck of the femur?
Which of the following statements about the lumbrical muscles is correct?
Insertion of levator scapulae is?
Which nerve roots are primarily involved in Erb's palsy?
What is the embryological origin of the ligamentum arteriosum?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 71: Arch of aorta begins at which vertebral level?
- A. T2
- B. T5
- C. T3
- D. T4 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***T4*** - The **arch of the aorta** typically begins at the level of the **upper border of the fourth thoracic vertebra (T4)**. - This anatomical landmark is crucial for understanding the **topography of the mediastinum** and the branching of the great vessels. *T2* - The **T2 vertebral level** is too high; the arch of the aorta does not begin this superiorly. - This level is often associated with structures like the **trachea** and **esophagus** in the superior mediastinum, but not the aortic arch's origin. *T3* - The **T3 vertebral level** is also too high for the typical origin of the aortic arch. - The **manubrium of the sternum** generally extends down to this level, but the aorta's arch begins slightly lower. *T5* - The **T5 vertebral level** is too low; at this point, the arch of the aorta has usually already passed posteriorly and begun its descent as the **descending aorta** [1]. - The **bifurcation of the trachea** typically occurs at the T4/T5 intervertebral disc level. *T2* - The left recurrent laryngeal nerve (RLN) separates from the vagus as it passes anterior to the arch of the aorta [1].
Question 72: Intercostal nerve is a branch of?
- A. Brachial plexus
- B. Dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves
- C. Ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves (Correct Answer)
- D. Ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves
Explanation: ***Ventral rami of thoracic spinal nerves*** - Intercostal nerves are direct continuations of the **ventral rami of the thoracic spinal nerves** (T1-T11) [1]. - These nerves run within the **intercostal spaces**, providing sensory and motor innervation to the thoracic wall [2]. *Brachial plexus* - The brachial plexus is formed by the **ventral rami of spinal nerves C5-T1**. - It primarily innervates the **upper limb**, not the intercostal spaces. *Dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves* - The dorsal rami of thoracic spinal nerves supply the **deep back muscles** and the skin over the back. - They do not contribute to the innervation of the intercostal spaces or the anterior/lateral thoracic wall. *Ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves* - The ventral rami of cervical spinal nerves form the **cervical plexus (C1-C4)** and contribute to the **brachial plexus (C5-T1)**. - They innervate structures in the neck, diaphragm, and upper limb, but not the intercostal region.
Question 73: Inversion and eversion of foot occurs at which joint
- A. Ankle
- B. Subtalar (Correct Answer)
- C. Tarso-metatarsal
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Subtalar*** - The **subtalar joint** (talocalcaneal joint) is primarily responsible for **inversion** and **eversion** movements of the foot. - **Inversion** involves tilting the sole of the foot medially (turning inward), while **eversion** involves tilting the sole laterally (turning outward). - This joint allows the foot to **adapt to uneven surfaces** and plays a crucial role in the biomechanics of walking and running. - The subtalar joint is essential for shock absorption and balance during gait. *Ankle* - The **ankle joint** (talocrural joint) is a hinge joint primarily responsible for **dorsiflexion** and **plantarflexion** of the foot. - It allows moving the foot up and down but has minimal contribution to inversion and eversion. *Tarso-metatarsal* - The **tarso-metatarsal joints** (Lisfranc joints) connect the tarsal bones to the metatarsal bones. - These joints contribute primarily to the **stability and arch integrity** of the foot, with minimal movement capacity. - They allow slight gliding movements but not significant inversion or eversion. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because the **subtalar joint** is indeed the primary joint responsible for inversion and eversion of the foot. - Understanding foot joint biomechanics is essential for diagnosing gait abnormalities, ankle sprains, and foot pathologies.
Question 74: All veins open in sinus venarum except -
- A. SVC
- B. Coronary sinus
- C. Anterior cardiac vein (Correct Answer)
- D. Small cardiac vein
Explanation: ***Anterior cardiac vein*** - The **anterior cardiac veins** are unique in that they drain **directly into the right atrium** through small openings (foramina) in the anterior atrial wall, **bypassing the sinus venarum entirely**. - Unlike other cardiac veins, they do **not** drain into the **coronary sinus** or the **sinus venarum**. - They typically number 2-3 veins and drain the anterior surface of the right ventricle. *SVC* - The **superior vena cava (SVC)** opens directly into the **superior part of the sinus venarum** of the right atrium. - It carries deoxygenated blood from the upper body, head, neck, and upper limbs to the heart. *Coronary sinus* - The **coronary sinus** is the largest venous drainage channel of the heart and opens into the **posteromedial part of the sinus venarum**. - It collects blood from most cardiac veins, including the great cardiac vein, middle cardiac vein, and small cardiac vein. *Small cardiac vein* - The **small cardiac vein** drains into the **coronary sinus**, which then opens into the **sinus venarum**. - It runs along the right atrioventricular (coronary) groove and drains the right atrium and right ventricle.
Question 75: Which of the following statements about the atrioventricular groove is true?
- A. Contains left anterior descending coronary artery
- B. Also called coronary sulcus (Correct Answer)
- C. Contains posterior descending artery
- D. Contains left coronary artery
Explanation: ***Also called coronary sulcus*** - The **atrioventricular groove** is a critical anatomical landmark that separates the atria from the ventricles on the external surface of the heart. - This anatomical division is consistently referred to as the **coronary sulcus**, which encircles the entire heart. *Contains left anterior descending coronary artery* - The **left anterior descending (LAD) coronary artery**, also known as the anterior interventricular artery, lies within the **interventricular groove** (or sulcus), not the atrioventricular groove. - The interventricular groove separates the left and right ventricles, distinct from the atrioventricular separation. *Contains left coronary artery* - The **left coronary artery (LCA)** is a short main trunk that almost immediately divides into the **left anterior descending** (LAD) and **circumflex arteries** [1]. - While the **circumflex artery** (a branch of the LCA) runs in the left part of the atrioventricular groove, the main left coronary artery itself is too short to be considered within the groove [1]. *Contains posterior descending artery* - The **posterior descending artery (PDA)**, also known as the posterior interventricular artery, lies within the **posterior interventricular groove**, separating the ventricles posteriorly. - The PDA is a branch of either the right coronary artery (in most people) or the circumflex artery, but it follows the interventricular septum, not the atrioventricular border.
Question 76: Which artery is primarily responsible for supplying the head and neck of the femur?
- A. Medial circumflex artery (Correct Answer)
- B. Obturator artery
- C. Lateral circumflex artery
- D. Profunda femoris artery
Explanation: ***Medial circumflex artery*** - The **medial circumflex artery** is the primary blood supply to the **femoral head and neck** in adults. - Its branches, particularly the **retinacular arteries**, ascend along the femoral neck to perfuse the head. *Lateral circumflex artery* - The **lateral circumflex artery** supplies the **vastus lateralis muscle** and contributes to the supply of the **greater trochanter**. - While it anastomoses with the medial circumflex artery, its direct contribution to the femoral head is minimal. *Profunda femoris artery* - The **profunda femoris artery**, or deep femoral artery, is the main arterial supply to the **thigh muscles**. - It gives rise to the medial and lateral circumflex femoral arteries but does not directly supply the femoral head. *Obturator artery* - The **obturator artery** primarily supplies the **adductor muscles** of the thigh and contributes branches to the hip joint capsule. - While it has a small branch (artery to the head of the femur) that may contribute to the femoral head in children, it is not the main source in adults.
Question 77: Which of the following statements about the lumbrical muscles is correct?
- A. All lumbricals are supplied by the median nerve
- B. Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints (Correct Answer)
- C. Origin from the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis
- D. All lumbricals are supplied by the ulnar nerve
Explanation: Flex MCP joints and extend IP joints - The lumbrical muscles are unique in their attachment, originating from tendons and inserting into the extensor hood, allowing them to perform simultaneous metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint flexion and interphalangeal (IP) joint extension [1]. - This specific action is crucial for fine motor movements of the fingers, particularly in precision grip. All lumbricals are supplied by the median nerve - This statement is incorrect as only the first and second lumbricals (of the index and middle fingers) are typically supplied by the median nerve. - The third and fourth lumbricals are innervated by the ulnar nerve. All lumbricals are supplied by the ulnar nerve - This statement is incorrect because the first and second lumbricals receive innervation from the median nerve. - Only the third and fourth lumbricals are consistently supplied by the deep branch of the ulnar nerve. Origin from the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis - This statement is incorrect. The lumbricals originate from the tendons of the flexor digitorum profundus, not the superficialis [1]. - They are unique in that they are the only muscles in the human body that originate from a tendon and insert into a tendon (extensor expansion) [1].
Question 78: Insertion of levator scapulae is?
- A. Lateral border of scapula
- B. Suprolateral part of scapula
- C. Superior part of medial scapula border (Correct Answer)
- D. Inferior angle of scapula
Explanation: ***Superior part of medial scapula border*** - The **levator scapulae muscle** originates from the **transverse processes of C1-C4 vertebrae** and **inserts** onto the superior part of the medial border of the scapula, between the **superior angle and the spine of the scapula**. - Its main actions are to **elevate** and **rotate** the scapula downward. *Lateral border of scapula* - The **lateral border of the scapula** primarily serves as the attachment site for muscles that move the **humerus**, such as the **teres major** and **teres minor**. - The levator scapulae has no direct insertion on the lateral border. *Suprolateral part of scapula* - This general description is vague and does not precisely identify the insertion point of the levator scapulae. - While it's located superiorly, the specific insertion is on the **medial border**, not broadly "suprolateral." *Inferior angle of scapula* - The **inferior angle of the scapula** is the insertion point for muscles like the **latissimus dorsi** (occasionally) and a key landmark for muscles involved in **scapular rotation**, such as the **serratus anterior**. - The levator scapulae is located much more superiorly and inserts onto the medial border at a higher level than the inferior angle.
Question 79: Which nerve roots are primarily involved in Erb's palsy?
- A. C5, C6 (Correct Answer)
- B. C4, C5
- C. C5, C7
- D. C6, C8
Explanation: C5, C6 - **Erb's palsy** primarily involves injury to the **upper trunk of the brachial plexus**, which is formed by the ventral rami of **C5 and C6** spinal nerves. - This lesion results in a characteristic "waiter's tip" posture due to paralysis of muscles supplied by these nerve roots, including the **deltoid**, **biceps**, and **brachialis**. *C4, C5* - While C5 is involved, **C4** is typically associated with the **phrenic nerve** and diaphragm function, and its primary involvement is not characteristic of Erb's palsy. - Injury to C4 and C5 alone would not produce the comprehensive motor deficits seen in Erb's palsy involving shoulder and elbow flexion. *C5, C7* - This option includes C5 but also **C7**, which is more commonly associated with the **middle trunk** of the brachial plexus. - While C7 can be involved in extended brachial plexus injuries, its primary involvement alone is not the classic presentation of Erb's palsy. *C6, C8* - This combination includes C6 but introduces **C8**, which is part of the **lower trunk** of the brachial plexus. - Injuries involving C8 and T1 are characteristic of **Klumpke's palsy**, affecting intrinsic hand muscles and causing a "claw hand" deformity, which is distinct from Erb's palsy.
Question 80: What is the embryological origin of the ligamentum arteriosum?
- A. Remnant of the ductus arteriosus (Correct Answer)
- B. Remnant of the ductus venosus
- C. Remnant of the ductus utriculosaccularis
- D. Remnant of the ductus reuniens
Explanation: ***Remnant of the ductus arteriosus*** - The **ductus arteriosus** is a fetal blood vessel connecting the **pulmonary artery** to the **aorta**, bypassing the non-functional lungs [1]. - After birth, due to increased oxygen tension and decreased prostaglandins, it typically constricts and obliterates, forming the **ligamentum arteriosum** [2]. *Remnant of the ductus venosus* - The **ductus venosus** is a fetal shunt connecting the **umbilical vein** to the **inferior vena cava**, bypassing the liver's circulatory bed [2]. - After birth, it closes and becomes the **ligamentum venosum**, not the ligamentum arteriosum [2]. *Remnant of the ductus utriculosaccularis* - This is an **inner ear structure** connecting the utricle and saccule in the membranous labyrinth. - It is **not a cardiovascular structure** and has no relation to the ligamentum arteriosum. *Remnant of the ductus reuniens* - The **ductus reuniens** (also called ductus utriculosaccularis) is an **inner ear structure**, not a fetal cardiovascular shunt. - It has **no remnant** related to the ligamentum arteriosum or cardiovascular system.