Internal Medicine
1 questionsWhich type of artery is most commonly involved in PAN?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Which type of artery is most commonly involved in PAN?
- A. Muscular (Correct Answer)
- B. Capillaries
- C. Elastic
- D. Arterioles
Explanation: ***Muscular*** - **Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)** predominantly affects **medium to small-sized muscular arteries**, leading to inflammation, necrosis, and microaneurysms [1]. - This involvement often causes **organ ischemia** and symptoms related to the affected organs, such as the kidneys, gastrointestinal tract, and skin [1]. *Elastic* - **Elastic arteries**, such as the aorta and its major branches, are typically spared in PAN due to their larger size and distinct histological structure. - Diseases like **Takayasu arteritis** or **Giant cell arteritis** are more commonly associated with vasculitis affecting large elastic arteries. *Arterioles* - While arterioles can be affected in various forms of vasculitis, they are not the primary target in classic PAN. - Involvement of arterioles is more characteristic of **microscopic polyangiitis** or **Churg-Strauss syndrome** [2]. *Capillaries* - **Capillaries** are the smallest blood vessels, and their involvement is rare in PAN. - Conditions like **Henoch-Schönlein purpura** or some drug-induced vasculitides more typically affect capillaries, often resulting in palpable purpura [2].
Pathology
1 questionsConcentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen in -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pathology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Concentric hypertrophy of left ventricle is seen in -
- A. Congenital aortic stenosis due to bicuspid aortic valve (Correct Answer)
- B. Mitral Stenosis
- C. Aortic Regurgitation
- D. Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy
Explanation: ***Congenital aortic stenosis due to bicuspid aortic valve*** - **Aortic stenosis** creates a **pressure overload** on the left ventricle, leading to a compensatory increase in myocardial wall thickness without significant chamber dilation, which is the classic example of **concentric hypertrophy** [1]. - A **bicuspid aortic valve** is a common congenital anomaly that causes aortic stenosis and thus concentric left ventricular hypertrophy [2]. - This represents **acquired concentric hypertrophy** due to hemodynamic stress. *Mitral Stenosis* - **Mitral stenosis** primarily causes a pressure overload on the **left atrium**, leading to left atrial enlargement [3]. - While it can indirectly affect the left ventricle, it typically does not cause **concentric left ventricular hypertrophy** itself. *Aortic Regurgitation* - **Aortic regurgitation** leads to a **volume overload** on the left ventricle as blood flows back into the ventricle during diastole. - This typically results in **eccentric hypertrophy**, where both the ventricular wall thickness and chamber size increase significantly (dilated ventricle with increased mass) [1]. *Hypertrophic Obstructive Cardiomyopathy* - **Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM)** is a **primary genetic myocardial disease** characterized by **asymmetric septal hypertrophy** rather than uniform concentric hypertrophy. - While HOCM involves significant myocardial hypertrophy, it represents a distinct pathophysiologic entity with **asymmetric distribution** (predominantly septal), not the classic concentric pattern seen with pressure overload states. - The hypertrophy in HOCM is **intrinsic (genetic)** rather than **adaptive (hemodynamic)** like in aortic stenosis. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, p. 536. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Heart, pp. 562-563. [3] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Diseases of Infancy and Childhood, pp. 533-534.
Pharmacology
6 questionsWhich antithyroid drug is preferred during the first trimester of pregnancy due to relatively lower placental transfer?
Which of the following oral antidiabetic drugs is an insulin secretagogue?
Which of the following is a long-acting beta-2 agonist?
Which triptan is available in nasal spray form?
Acetaminophen [Paracetamol] induced liver toxicity is due to which metabolite?
Which of the following drugs is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute asthma attacks?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Which antithyroid drug is preferred during the first trimester of pregnancy due to relatively lower placental transfer?
- A. Carbimazole
- B. Propylthiouracil (Correct Answer)
- C. Both
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***Propylthiouracil*** - **Propylthiouracil (PTU)** is the preferred antithyroid drug during the **first trimester** of pregnancy because it crosses the placenta less readily than methimazole/carbimazole. - While it still crosses the placenta, its lower placental transfer and association with fewer fetal anomalies in early pregnancy make it a safer initial choice, especially to minimize the risk of **fetal embryopathy** associated with methimazole. *Carbimazole* - **Carbimazole** (which is metabolized to methimazole) can cross the placenta more easily than PTU and has been associated with **fetal anomalies**, particularly in the first trimester. - Its use is generally avoided during the first trimester due to concerns about congenital malformations such as **aplasia cutis** and **esophageal atresia**. *Both* - While both drugs can cross the placenta to some extent, their safety profiles and recommended use during pregnancy differ significantly. - Carbimazole (methimazole) has a higher risk of teratogenicity in the first trimester compared to PTU. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because propylthiouracil is indeed known to cross the placenta and is commonly used in pregnancy, especially during the first trimester. - The choice of antithyroid drug is a critical consideration in managing hyperthyroidism in pregnancy.
Question 522: Which of the following oral antidiabetic drugs is an insulin secretagogue?
- A. Metformin
- B. Pioglitazone
- C. Nateglinide (Correct Answer)
- D. Acarbose
Explanation: **Nateglinide** - **Nateglinide** is a **meglitinide**, which is a type of **insulin secretagogue**. - It stimulates **insulin release** from pancreatic beta cells by blocking ATP-sensitive potassium channels. *Metformin* - **Metformin** is a **biguanide** that primarily works by **decreasing hepatic glucose production** and increasing insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues. - It does not directly stimulate insulin secretion. *Pioglitazone* - **Pioglitazone** is a **thiazolidinedione** (TZD) that improves insulin sensitivity by activating **PPAR-gamma receptors**. - It does not directly affect insulin secretion but rather enhances the body's response to existing insulin. *Acarbose* - **Acarbose** is an **alpha-glucosidase inhibitor** that delays the digestion and absorption of carbohydrates in the small intestine. - This reduces postprandial glucose excursions and does not directly stimulate insulin secretion.
Question 523: Which of the following is a long-acting beta-2 agonist?
- A. Isoprenaline
- B. Ephedrine
- C. Salbutamol
- D. Formoterol (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Formoterol*** - **Formoterol** is a **long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)** commonly used in the treatment of asthma and COPD. - It provides **bronchodilation** for up to 12 hours due to its high lipophilicity, allowing it to remain in the cell membrane and continuously activate beta-2 receptors. *Isoprenaline (non-selective adrenergic agonist)* - **Isoprenaline** is a **non-selective beta-adrenergic agonist**, meaning it activates both beta-1 and beta-2 receptors. - It is **short-acting** and primarily used as a vasodilator or to stimulate heart rate, not as a long-acting bronchodilator. *Ephedrine (non-selective adrenergic agonist)* - **Ephedrine** is a **mixed-acting sympathomimetic amine** that increases the release of norepinephrine and directly stimulates alpha and beta receptors. - It has a short duration of action and is primarily used as a decongestant or bronchodilator in emergency situations, not as a long-acting agent. *Salbutamol (short-acting beta-2 agonist)* - **Salbutamol** is a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)**, providing rapid onset but a short duration of action (typically 4-6 hours). - It is used for **relieving acute bronchospasm** and is not considered a long-acting medication for maintenance therapy.
Question 524: Which triptan is available in nasal spray form?
- A. Sumatriptan (Correct Answer)
- B. Rizatriptan
- C. Naratriptan
- D. Frovatriptan
Explanation: ***Sumatriptan*** - **Sumatriptan** is available in multiple formulations, including **oral, subcutaneous injection, and nasal spray**, making it versatile for migraine treatment [1], [2]. - The nasal spray formulation allows for **faster absorption** and onset of action, which can be beneficial for patients with nausea or vomiting during migraine attacks [1]. *Rizatriptan* - **Rizatriptan** is primarily available in **oral tablet** and **orally disintegrating tablet** (ODT) forms [2]. - It does not have a commonly available nasal spray formulation for migraine treatment [2]. *Naratriptan* - **Naratriptan** is available as an **oral tablet** and is known for its **longer half-life** and generally milder side effect profile compared to sumatriptan [2]. - It is not available in a nasal spray formulation [2]. *Frovatriptan* - **Frovatriptan** is available exclusively as an **oral tablet** and is notable for having the **longest half-life** among triptans, making it useful for preventing recurring migraines [2]. - There is no nasal spray formulation for frovatriptan [2].
Question 525: Acetaminophen [Paracetamol] induced liver toxicity is due to which metabolite?
- A. Co-Q
- B. Cytochrome 'C'
- C. NAPQI (Correct Answer)
- D. N-acetylcysteine
Explanation: ***NAPQI*** - **N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI)** is a highly reactive and toxic metabolite produced during acetaminophen metabolism, especially in overdose situations [1, 3]. - When glutathione stores are depleted due to excessive NAPQI formation, this metabolite covalently binds to hepatic macromolecules, causing **hepatocellular damage and necrosis** [1, 3].*N-acetylcysteine* - **N-acetylcysteine (NAC)** is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose, not the toxic metabolite itself [2, 3]. - NAC works by replenishing hepatic **glutathione stores**, which helps detoxify NAPQI and prevent liver injury [2, 3].*Co-Q* - **Coenzyme Q10 (CoQ10)** is an endogenous antioxidant and electron carrier in the mitochondrial respiratory chain. - It is not a metabolite of acetaminophen and plays no direct role in acetaminophen-induced liver toxicity.*Cytochrome 'C'* - **Cytochrome c** is a protein involved in the electron transport chain in mitochondria and plays a critical role in apoptosis. - While cellular damage from NAPQI can eventually lead to cytochrome c release and apoptosis, cytochrome c itself is not a metabolite of acetaminophen or the direct cause of toxicity.
Question 526: Which of the following drugs is commonly used as a rescue medication for acute asthma attacks?
- A. Salbutamol (Correct Answer)
- B. Theophylline
- C. Terbutaline
- D. Budesonide
Explanation: ***Salbutamol*** - **Salbutamol** (albuterol) is a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)** that rapidly relaxes bronchial smooth muscle. - Its quick onset of action makes it ideal for immediate relief of **bronchoconstriction** during an acute asthma attack. - It is the **most commonly used** and **first-line rescue medication** for acute asthma worldwide. *Terbutaline* - **Terbutaline** is also a **short-acting beta-2 agonist (SABA)** similar to salbutamol and can be used as a rescue medication. - While it has comparable bronchodilator effects, **salbutamol is more commonly used** as the preferred rescue inhaler in clinical practice. - Both are SABAs, but salbutamol has become the standard first-choice rescue medication globally. *Theophylline* - **Theophylline** is a **methylxanthine** that acts as a bronchodilator but has a **narrow therapeutic index** and slower onset of action. - It is used as a **maintenance therapy** for chronic asthma and not as a rescue drug for acute exacerbations. *Budesonide* - **Budesonide** is an **inhaled corticosteroid (ICS)** used as a **long-term controller medication** to reduce airway inflammation. - It has a slow onset of action and is *not* effective for immediate relief during an acute asthma attack.
Physiology
1 questionsDamage to pneumotaxic center along with vagus nerve causes which type of respiration?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Damage to pneumotaxic center along with vagus nerve causes which type of respiration?
- A. Cheyne-Stokes breathing
- B. Deep and slow breathing
- C. Shallow and rapid breathing
- D. Apneustic breathing (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Apneustic breathing*** - Damage to the **pneumotaxic center** prevents the normal inhibition of inspiration, leading to **prolonged inspiratory gasps**. - **Vagal nerve damage** further removes the inhibitory feedback from the lungs, exacerbating the inspiratory "holds" characteristic of apneustic breathing. *Cheyne-Stokes breathing* - This pattern is characterized by a **crescendo-decrescendo pattern** of breathing, interspersed with periods of **apnea**. - It is often associated with conditions like **heart failure**, stroke, or severe neurological damage, not specifically the pneumotaxic center and vagus nerve. *Deep and slow breathing* - This pattern can be seen in conditions like **Kussmaul breathing** (due to metabolic acidosis) or as a compensatory mechanism. - It does not directly result from the combined damage of the **pneumotaxic center** and the **vagus nerve**. *Shallow and rapid breathing* - This pattern is commonly seen in restrictive lung diseases, anxiety, or pain, where tidal volume is decreased and respiratory rate increased. - It does not reflect the **prolonged inspiration** that would result from a compromised pneumotaxic center and vagal input.
Surgery
1 questionsAmount of blood loss in Stage I of hemorrhagic shock is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Surgery NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 521: Amount of blood loss in Stage I of hemorrhagic shock is -
- A. <10%
- B. <30%
- C. <15% (Correct Answer)
- D. <40%
Explanation: ***<15%*** - Stage I (Class I) hemorrhagic shock is characterized by **minimal blood loss of up to 15%** of total blood volume (up to 750 mL in a 70 kg adult). - This is the **universally accepted ATLS definition** for Class I hemorrhage. - At this level, compensatory mechanisms maintain normal vital signs with minimal clinical manifestations. - Patients typically show minimal or no symptoms, with possible mild tachycardia only. *<10%* - While this amount falls within Stage I, it represents only a **portion of the Stage I range** and is not the complete definition. - Stage I actually extends up to 15%, making this option incomplete. *<30%* - This range encompasses **both Stage I (up to 15%) and Stage II (15-30%)** hemorrhagic shock. - Stage II manifests with tachycardia (>100 bpm), tachypnea, and decreased pulse pressure, but blood pressure remains normal. - This is too broad to specifically define Stage I. *<40%* - This range covers **Stage I, II, and III** hemorrhagic shock. - Stage III (30-40% loss) presents with significant hypotension, marked tachycardia (>120 bpm), altered mental status, and decreased urine output. - This is far beyond the compensated Stage I definition.