Anatomy
1 questionsWhich Brodmann's area is primarily associated with motor speech?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Which Brodmann's area is primarily associated with motor speech?
- A. Area 1, 2, 3
- B. Area 4, 6
- C. Area 40
- D. Area 44 (Correct Answer)
Explanation: Area 44 - **Brodmann Area 44** is primarily known as **Broca's area**, which is critical for **motor speech production** and language processing [1]. - Damage to this area typically results in **Broca's aphasia**, characterized by non-fluent speech and difficulty forming complete sentences [1]. Area 1, 2, 3 - These Brodmann areas constitute the **primary somatosensory cortex**, responsible for processing **tactile and proprioceptive information** from the body. - They are involved in sensory perception, not directly with motor speech production. Area 4, 6 - **Brodmann Area 4** is the **primary motor cortex**, involved in executing voluntary movements [2]. **Brodmann Area 6** is the **premotor and supplementary motor cortex**, involved in planning and coordinating movements [2]. - While these areas are crucial for motor control, they are not specifically associated as the primary center for motor speech in the same way Broca's area is. Area 40 - **Brodmann Area 40**, also known as the **supramarginal gyrus**, is part of the **parietal lobe** and is involved in phonological processing, language perception, and spatial cognition. - While it plays a role in language, it is not the primary area for motor speech production.
Biochemistry
1 questionsCalcium absorption is hampered by
NEET-PG 2015 - Biochemistry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Calcium absorption is hampered by
- A. Protein
- B. Lactose
- C. Acid
- D. Phytates (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Phytates*** - **Phytates** (phytic acid) found in whole grains, legumes, nuts, and seeds bind to calcium, forming an insoluble complex that significantly **reduces its absorption** in the intestines. - This binding prevents the free calcium ions from crossing the intestinal wall into the bloodstream. *Protein* - **Protein** generally *enhances* calcium absorption, especially when consumed in moderate amounts, as some amino acids can form soluble calcium complexes. - However, very high protein intake, particularly from animal sources, *may* slightly increase urinary calcium excretion in the long term, but it does not directly hamper intestinal absorption. *Lactose* - **Lactose**, a sugar found in milk, is known to *enhance* calcium absorption. - It does so by creating a more acidic environment in the small intestine and by forming soluble complexes with calcium, making it more bioavailable. *Acid* - **Stomach acid** (hydrochloric acid) is crucial for calcium absorption as it helps to solubilize calcium salts from food. - A *reduced* acidic environment, such as from antacid use or certain medical conditions, would hamper calcium absorption, but acid itself is beneficial.
Physiology
8 questionsWhich of the following neurons in the cerebellar cortex is primarily excitatory?
EPSP is due to?
Vital capacity is measured by:
During the sympathetic fight-or-flight response, what is the primary cardiovascular effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on skeletal muscle vasculature?
Maximum density of muscle spindle is found in?
In the relaxation pressure curve, at zero relaxation pressure in chronic smokers:
Broca's area is primarily involved in which of the following functions?
The ST Segment of an ECG corresponds to which phase of the action potential?
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 191: Which of the following neurons in the cerebellar cortex is primarily excitatory?
- A. Purkinje
- B. Basket
- C. Golgi
- D. Granule cells (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Granule cells*** - **Granule cells** are the only neurons in the cerebellar cortex that are **excitatory**, utilizing glutamate as their neurotransmitter. - They receive input from **mossy fibers** and project their parallel fibers to Purkinje cells and other interneurons. *Purkinje* - **Purkinje cells** are the primary output neurons of the cerebellar cortex and are **inhibitory**, releasing GABA. - They integrate vast amounts of information and project to the **deep cerebellar nuclei**. *Basket* - **Basket cells** are **inhibitory interneurons** located in the molecular layer of the cerebellum. - They synapse on the somata of **Purkinje cells**, providing potent inhibition. *Golgi* - **Golgi cells** are **inhibitory interneurons** found in the granular layer of the cerebellum. - They receive excitatory input from **parallel fibers** and inhibit granule cells, forming an important feedback loop.
Question 192: EPSP is due to?
- A. Sodium ion influx (Correct Answer)
- B. Potassium ion influx
- C. Sodium ion efflux
- D. Calcium ion influx
Explanation: ***Sodium ion influx*** - An **Excitatory Postsynaptic Potential (EPSP)** is caused primarily by the binding of an **excitatory neurotransmitter** to its receptor, leading to the opening of **ligand-gated ion channels** permeable to sodium (Na+) ions. - The **influx of positively charged sodium ions** into the postsynaptic neuron causes a **depolarization** of the membrane potential, making it more likely to reach the threshold for an action potential. *Potassium ion influx* - **Potassium (K+) influx** is not the primary mechanism for generating an EPSP; instead, **potassium efflux** (movement out of the cell) is typically involved in **repolarization** after an action potential or in generating **Inhibitory Postsynaptic Potentials (IPSPs)**. - The movement of K+ into the cell would make the membrane potential more negative, leading to **hyperpolarization** or preventing depolarization. *Sodium ion efflux* - **Sodium (Na+) efflux** is mediated by the **Na+/K+ pump** and is crucial for maintaining the resting membrane potential, but it does **not directly cause an EPSP**. - Pumping Na+ out of the cell would **hyperpolarize** the cell or oppose depolarization, making an action potential less likely. *Calcium ion influx* - While **calcium (Ca2+) influx** is vital for many neuronal processes, including **neurotransmitter release** from the presynaptic terminal, it is **not the primary ionic basis** for generating an EPSP in the postsynaptic neuron itself. - Significant Ca2+ influx can occur during an **action potential** or lead to intracellular signaling, but it's not the main depolarizing current responsible for an EPSP.
Question 193: Vital capacity is measured by:
- A. Plethysmography
- B. Nitrogen washout technique
- C. Spirometer (Correct Answer)
- D. Gas-dilution method
Explanation: ***Spirometer*** - A **spirometer** is a device used to measure lung volumes and capacities, including **vital capacity**. - It measures the volume of air inspired and expired by evaluating mechanical changes in the volume of air in the lungs. *Plethysmography* - **Plethysmography** is primarily used to measure **residual volume** and **total lung capacity**, not vital capacity directly. - This method measures changes in body volume to infer changes in lung volume. *Gas-dilution method* - The **gas-dilution method**, typically using helium, is used to measure the **functional residual capacity (FRC)** and subsequently calculate residual volume and total lung capacity. - It involves rebreathing a known concentration of gas to determine the volume of gas already in the lungs. *Nitrogen washout technique* - The **nitrogen washout technique** is also used to measure **functional residual capacity (FRC)** and detect uneven ventilation. - It involves breathing 100% oxygen to wash out all nitrogen from the lungs, allowing for calculation of lung volumes.
Question 194: During the sympathetic fight-or-flight response, what is the primary cardiovascular effect of epinephrine and norepinephrine on skeletal muscle vasculature?
- A. Increased blood flow to muscles (Correct Answer)
- B. Increased blood flow to the skin
- C. Bronchoconstriction
- D. Decreased heart rate
Explanation: ***Increased blood flow to muscles*** - **Epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** cause **vasodilation** in skeletal muscle arterioles, shunting blood toward tissues critical for immediate physical action. - This response ensures that muscles have adequate **oxygen** and **nutrients** to support intense activity, enabling a quick escape or confrontation. *Increased blood flow to the skin* - During fight-or-flight, the body prioritizes essential organs, causing **vasoconstriction** in the skin to redirect blood flow away from non-essential areas. - This redirection helps to conserve blood and reduce potential blood loss from surface injuries. *Bronchoconstriction* - **Epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** actually cause **bronchodilation**, leading to the relaxation of airway smooth muscles. - This effect increases the diameter of the airways, allowing more air to enter and exit the lungs, thereby enhancing **oxygen intake** and carbon dioxide expulsion. *Decreased heart rate* - The primary effect of **epinephrine** and **norepinephrine** is to **increase heart rate** and myocardial contractility. - This cardiac acceleration enhances **cardiac output**, ensuring rapid and efficient delivery of oxygenated blood throughout the body to meet the demands of stress.
Question 195: Maximum density of muscle spindle is found in?
- A. Calf muscle
- B. Lumbricals (Correct Answer)
- C. Triceps
- D. Quadriceps muscle
Explanation: ***Lumbricals*** - **Lumbricals** are small, intricate muscles in the hand, responsible for fine motor control and precise movements like grasping and manipulating objects. - The high density of **muscle spindles** in lumbricals allows for extremely accurate feedback on muscle length and tension, crucial for **proprioception** and delicate tasks. *Calf muscle* - **Calf muscles** (gastrocnemius and soleus) are large muscles primarily involved in powerful movements like walking and running. - While they do contain muscle spindles for proprioception, their density is lower compared to muscles involved in fine motor control. *Quadriceps muscle* - The **quadriceps femoris** is a large muscle group in the thigh responsible for knee extension and powerful leg movements. - They contain muscle spindles to monitor muscle stretch, but not with the extreme density seen in muscles with fine motor functions. *Triceps* - The **triceps brachii** is a large muscle on the back of the upper arm, primarily responsible for elbow extension. - It has a moderate density of muscle spindles, sufficient for coordinating arm movements but not as high as muscles designed for precision.
Question 196: In the relaxation pressure curve, at zero relaxation pressure in chronic smokers:
- A. Lung volume decreases significantly
- B. Lung volume remains elevated (Correct Answer)
- C. No significant change in lung volume
- D. Lung compliance decreases
Explanation: ***Lung volume remains elevated*** - In chronic smokers, conditions like **emphysema** lead to loss of elastic recoil and **air trapping**. - At zero relaxation pressure (the point where the respiratory system is at its resting equilibrium), the **functional residual capacity (FRC)** is higher due to less elastic recoil, which maintains the lungs at a more inflated state. - The balance between inward lung recoil and outward chest wall recoil shifts, resulting in a new equilibrium at a higher lung volume. *Lung volume decreases significantly* - This would imply increased elastic recoil or significant **airway obstruction** preventing air from entering, which is contrary to the typical pathophysiological changes in chronic smokers (e.g., emphysema). - In emphysema, the **loss of elastic recoil** actually prevents the lungs from deflating efficiently, leading to increased rather than decreased lung volume at rest. *No significant change in lung volume* - Chronic smoking often results in **structural changes** to the lungs, particularly **emphysema**, which significantly alters lung mechanics. - These changes directly impact the **resting lung volume (FRC)** as the balance between elastic recoil and chest wall compliance is disturbed, leading to a noticeable increase. *Lung compliance decreases* - This is incorrect; in emphysema, lung **compliance actually increases** due to destruction of alveolar walls and loss of elastic tissue. - Increased compliance means the lungs are more easily distensible but have reduced elastic recoil, contributing to air trapping and elevated FRC.
Question 197: Broca's area is primarily involved in which of the following functions?
- A. Speech production (Correct Answer)
- B. Language comprehension
- C. Language repetition
- D. Reading ability
Explanation: ***Speech production*** - **Broca's area** is a region in the frontal lobe of the dominant hemisphere, typically the left, that is crucial for the formation of coherent and grammatically correct speech. - Damage to this area leads to **Broca's aphasia**, characterized by **non-fluent speech**, difficulty retrieving words, and impaired syntax. *Language comprehension* - **Wernicke's area**, located in the temporal lobe, is primarily responsible for **language comprehension**. - Patients with **Wernicke's aphasia** can produce fluent speech but have difficulty understanding spoken and written language. *Language repetition* - The **arcuate fasciculus**, a bundle of nerve fibers connecting Broca's and Wernicke's areas, is essential for **language repetition**. - Lesions in this pathway result in **conduction aphasia**, where comprehension and fluency are relatively preserved, but repetition is severely impaired. *Reading ability* - Reading ability involves a complex network of brain regions, including the **angular gyrus** and **visual cortex**, in addition to language areas. - While Broca's area contributes to the motor planning aspects of reading aloud, it is not its primary function.
Question 198: The ST Segment of an ECG corresponds to which phase of the action potential?
- A. Rapid repolarization
- B. Final repolarization
- C. Plateau phase (Correct Answer)
- D. Rapid depolarization
Explanation: ***Plateau phase*** - The **ST segment** of the ECG represents the period when the ventricles are completely depolarized and corresponds to the **plateau phase (phase 2)** of the ventricular myocardial action potential. - During this phase, there is a balance between **calcium influx** and **potassium efflux**, maintaining the depolarized state and contributing to the sustained contraction of the ventricles. *Rapid depolarization* - This phase, represented by the **QRS complex** on the ECG, signifies the rapid influx of sodium ions into the ventricular cells. - It corresponds to **phase 0** of the action potential, where there is a sharp upstroke. *Rapid repolarization* - This corresponds to **phase 3** of the ventricular action potential, where potassium ions rapidly exit the cell, leading to repolarization. - On the ECG, this phase is represented by the **T wave**. *Final repolarization* - This is **not a standard electrophysiological term** in cardiac action potential nomenclature. - The complete repolarization process is represented by the **T wave** (phase 3), which returns the ventricle to its resting potential (phase 4). - The term may cause confusion as it doesn't correspond to a specific phase or ECG component.