NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: Foot drop occurs due to the involvement of:

Common peroneal nerve palsy. ***Common peroneal nerve palsy*** - The **common peroneal nerve** (also known as the common fibular nerve) innervates the muscles responsible for **dorsiflexion** and eversion of the foot (tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus longus and brevis). - Damage to this nerve leads to weakness or paralysis of these muscles, resulting in **foot drop**, which is the most common neurological cause. - The nerve is vulnerable at the **neck of the fibula** where it is superficial and can be compressed or injured. *Sciatic nerve* - The **sciatic nerve** divides into the tibial and common peroneal nerves. - Proximal sciatic nerve injury can cause foot drop, but it would also cause additional deficits including hamstring weakness, loss of ankle plantarflexion, and sensory loss over a wider distribution. - Isolated foot drop typically indicates **common peroneal nerve** injury, not sciatic nerve injury. *Direct injury to the dorsiflexors* - Direct trauma to the **dorsiflexor muscles** (tibialis anterior, extensor hallucis longus, extensor digitorum longus) can mechanically impair dorsiflexion. - However, the term "foot drop" typically refers to **neurological causes** rather than direct muscle injury, making common peroneal nerve palsy the more specific answer. *Obturator nerve* - The **obturator nerve** innervates the **adductor muscles of the thigh** (adductor longus, adductor brevis, adductor magnus, gracilis). - It does not innervate any muscles responsible for dorsiflexion of the foot and therefore **cannot cause foot drop**.

Q: Which of the following is true about keratinocytes?

Ectoderm derived cell. ***Ectoderm derived cell*** - Keratinocytes originate from the **ectoderm**, one of the three primary germ layers in embryonic development, which gives rise to the epidermis. - This ectodermal origin is fundamental to their role in forming the protective outer layer of the skin. *Differentiate in basal layer* - Keratinocytes in the **basal layer (stratum basale)** are primarily responsible for **proliferation** (cell division) rather than differentiation. - **Differentiation** into flattened, keratin-filled cells occurs as they migrate upwards through the epidermal layers. *Mature in basal layer* - Maturation, which involves the accumulation of **keratin** and the loss of organelles, primarily occurs in the **upper layers** of the epidermis (stratum spinosum, granulosum, corneum). - The basal layer is where new cells are generated, not where they reach their mature, fully keratinized state. *Present only in basal layer* - While keratinocytes originate in the basal layer, they are the **predominant cell type throughout all layers of the epidermis**. - They represent approximately 90% of epidermal cells and are found from the stratum basale to the stratum corneum.

Q: True about rotavirus vaccine:

Given orally. ***Given orally*** - Rotavirus vaccines are **live attenuated vaccines** administered orally to stimulate localized immunity in the gastrointestinal tract. - This oral route is crucial for inducing **mucosal immunity**, which is important for protection against rotavirus infection. *Killed vaccine* - The rotavirus vaccine is an **attenuated live vaccine**, meaning it contains weakened forms of the virus, not killed ones. - Live attenuated vaccines generally provide a **stronger and longer-lasting immune response** compared to killed vaccines. *Should be given before 5 years* - The rotavirus vaccine series is recommended to be completed in **infancy**, typically before 8 months of age, depending on the specific vaccine brand and schedule. - Giving the vaccine at too old an age increases the (still very small) risk of **intussusception** and a lack of efficacy. *Given subcutaneous* - Rotavirus vaccines are administered by the **oral route**, not subcutaneously. - The **subcutaneous route** is used for various other vaccines, but not for rotavirus.

Q: RULE OF HALVES RELATED TO-

HYPERTENSION. ***HYPERTENSION*** - The **rule of halves** in hypertension refers to the observation that often **only half of people** with hypertension are diagnosed, only half of those diagnosed are treated, and only half of those treated achieve adequate control. - This rule highlights challenges in the **diagnosis, treatment, and management** of hypertension at a population level. *OBESITY* - While obesity is a significant public health issue, the **rule of halves** is not a commonly used principle to describe its diagnosis and management. - Obesity is typically assessed using **Body Mass Index (BMI)** and associated health risks. *BLINDNESS* - The **rule of halves** is not a recognized concept in the context of blindness or visual impairment. - Blindness is often addressed through efforts in **prevention, treatment, and rehabilitation**. *BURNS* - The **rule of halves** is unrelated to the assessment or management of burns. - The severity of burns is commonly assessed using the **Rule of Nines** (Wallace Rule of Nines) [1] to estimate the percentage of total body surface area affected.

Q: Maculae cerulea is seen in ?

Pediculosis pubis. ***Pediculosis pubis*** - **Maculae ceruleae** (blue spots) are **pathognomonic** for pubic louse (*Pthirus pubis*) infestation. - These characteristic **bluish-gray macules** are typically found on the trunk, thighs, and lower abdomen. - They result from the **anticoagulant in louse saliva** converting hemoglobin to biliverdin at feeding sites, causing localized hemorrhage and pigment deposition. - This is a **classic diagnostic feature** of pediculosis pubis. *Pediculosis hominis corporis* - Body louse infestation causes **pruritus** and **excoriations**, typically along clothing lines (waistband, collar). - **Maculae ceruleae** are not a feature of body louse infestation. *Pediculosis capitis* - Head lice infestation presents with **scalp pruritus**, **nits on hair shafts**, and excoriations. - **Maculae ceruleae** do not occur with head lice. *Scabies* - Caused by *Sarcoptes scabiei* mite burrowing in the stratum corneum. - Presents with **burrows**, **papules**, **vesicles**, and intense **nocturnal pruritus**. - **Maculae ceruleae** are NOT associated with scabies infestation.

Q: Le Fort's operation is done in

Elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse. ***Elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse*** - Le Fort's operation is a **colpocleisis** procedure, which permanently closes the vagina, making it suitable for elderly patients who are no longer sexually active. - It is often reserved for those with **advanced uterine or vaginal prolapse** who are not candidates for more extensive surgeries due to comorbidities. *Women over 40 years, those who have completed their families* - While these patients may have completed their families, Le Fort's operation is a **definitive and irreversible procedure** that is typically reserved for those who are also postmenopausal and have no desire for future sexual activity. - Other less invasive or reconstructive options might be considered for women over 40 who still maintain sexual activity. *Women under 40 years who are desirous of retaining their menstrual and reproduction function* - Le Fort's operation involves **closure of the vagina**, which makes it impossible to retain menstrual or reproductive function. - Younger women would typically be offered **uterine-sparing procedures** or reconstructive surgeries to preserve these functions. *Young woman suffering from second or third degree prolapse* - For young women, even with significant prolapse, the primary goal is often to **preserve fertility, menstruation, and sexual function**. - Le Fort's operation would be contraindicated because it involves **vaginal obliteration**, making it unsuitable for a young woman.

Q: Fat necrosis is common in:

Breast. ***Breast*** - **Fat necrosis** in the breast is a relatively common benign condition, often resulting from trauma, surgery, or radiation. - It presents as a palpable lump that can mimic malignancy, making its differentiation crucial. *Retroperitoneal fat* - While fat necrosis can occur in the retroperitoneum, particularly in cases of **acute pancreatitis**, it is not considered "common" in this location independently [1]. - The primary tissue affected in pancreatitis is the pancreas itself, with necrosis extending to surrounding fat [1]. *Omentum* - **Omental fat necrosis** can occur but is rare and usually associated with torsion of the omentum or, less commonly, blunt abdominal trauma. - It is not a common site for isolated fat necrosis compared to the breast. *All of the options* - Although fat necrosis can occur in all these locations under specific circumstances, it is not "common" in all of them when considering the typical incidence of the condition. - **Breast fat necrosis** is more frequently encountered in clinical practice than in the omentum or retroperitoneal region. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Pancreas, p. 895.

Q: Which of the following is the most frequent primary malignant tumor of the CNS?

Glioblastoma multiforme. ***Glioblastoma multiforme*** - **Glioblastoma multiforme (GBM)** is the most common and aggressive primary malignant brain tumor in adults [1]. - It is a **grade IV astrocytoma**, characterized by rapid growth, necrosis, and microvascular proliferation [1]. *Oligodendroglioma* - **Oligodendrogliomas** are primary glial tumors but are less common than GBM. - They typically have a more indolent course than GBM and are often characterized by **IDH mutations** and **1p/19q co-deletion**. *Medulloblastoma* - **Medulloblastoma** is the most common malignant brain tumor in children, but it is rare in adults [2]. - It arises in the **cerebellum** and is a type of embryonal tumor [2]. *Meningioma* - **Meningiomas** are the most common primary brain tumors overall, but they are typically **benign** and originate from the meninges. - While they can be symptomatic due to compression, they are not primarily malignant in the way GBM is. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Central Nervous System, pp. 1308-1310. [2] Cross SS. Underwood's Pathology: A Clinical Approach. 6th ed. Common Clinical Manifestations Of Central And Peripheral Nervous System Disease, pp. 725-726.

Q: Autosomal recessive Polycystic kidneys - all are true except -

USG shows salt and pepper appearance. ***USG shows salt and pepper appearance*** - The **"salt and pepper" appearance** on imaging is characteristic of **autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD)** due to multiple renal cysts of varying sizes and associated vascular calcifications, not autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD). - ARPKD typically presents with **enlarged, hyperechoic kidneys** with loss of corticomedullary differentiation on ultrasound due to numerous small cysts. *Defective gene is PKHD1* - The dysfunctional gene in **autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)** is indeed **PKHD1**, located on chromosome 6. - This gene encodes for **fibrocystin/polyductin**, a protein primarily found in renal and biliary epithelial cells, whose mutation leads to cyst formation. *Both kidneys show innumerable cysts* - ARPKD is characterized by **bilateral involvement** with diffuse dilation of the collecting ducts, leading to innumerable small cysts in both kidneys. - These cysts cause significant **renal enlargement** and can lead to severe renal dysfunction. *Seen in adults* - **Autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease (ARPKD)** typically manifests in **infancy or childhood**, often prenatally or neonatally. - While some milder forms may present later in childhood, it is **not generally seen in adults**; adult-onset polycystic kidney disease is usually autosomal dominant (ADPKD) [1].

Q: Stress induced hyperglycemia is mediated through which hormone:

Cortisol. ***Cortisol*** - **Cortisol** is the **primary mediator** of stress-induced hyperglycemia among the counter-regulatory hormones - It promotes **gluconeogenesis** (formation of new glucose from amino acids and glycerol) in the liver - Stimulates **protein catabolism** in muscles, providing substrates for gluconeogenesis - Induces **insulin resistance** in peripheral tissues, reducing glucose uptake - Released as part of the **HPA axis response** to stress, with sustained elevation during prolonged stress - This is the **correct answer** for stress-induced hyperglycemia mediation *Epinephrine* - **Epinephrine** (adrenaline) is a potent hyperglycemic hormone but acts as an **acute, immediate response** to stress - Rapidly increases blood glucose through **glycogenolysis** (breakdown of glycogen) in liver and muscles - Stimulates **gluconeogenesis** and inhibits insulin secretion - Effects are **rapid but short-lived**, making it more of an emergency response rather than the sustained mediator - Works synergistically with cortisol but is not the primary sustained mediator *Growth hormone* - **Growth hormone** does contribute to hyperglycemia through **anti-insulin effects** and promoting lipolysis - Its hyperglycemic effects are **slower and less pronounced** compared to cortisol and epinephrine - Plays a role in **chronic stress** but is not the primary acute mediator - More important for **long-term metabolic adaptation** rather than immediate stress response *Insulin* - **Insulin** is a **glucose-lowering hormone** that facilitates glucose uptake into cells - During stress, insulin secretion is **suppressed** and tissues become **insulin-resistant** due to counter-regulatory hormones - It does **not mediate** stress-induced hyperglycemia; rather, its action is **opposed** by stress hormones - Decreased insulin action contributes to hyperglycemia but insulin itself is not the mediator

Question 1

Foot drop occurs due to the involvement of:

Accepted Answer

Common peroneal nerve palsy

Answer

Obturator nerve

Answer

Sciatic nerve

Answer

Direct injury to the dorsiflexors

Question 2

Which of the following is true about keratinocytes?

Accepted Answer

Ectoderm derived cell

Answer

Differentiate in basal layer

Answer

Mature in basal layer

Answer

Present only in basal layer

Question 3

True about rotavirus vaccine:

Accepted Answer

Given orally

Answer

Killed vaccine

Answer

Should be given before 5 years

Answer

Given subcutaneous

Question 4

RULE OF HALVES RELATED TO-

Accepted Answer

HYPERTENSION

Answer

OBESITY

Answer

BLINDNESS

Answer

BURNS

Question 5

Maculae cerulea is seen in ?

Accepted Answer

Pediculosis pubis

Answer

Pediculosis hominis corporis

Answer

Scabies

Answer

Pediculosis capitis

Question 6

Le Fort's operation is done in

Accepted Answer

Elderly menopausal patients with advanced prolapse

Answer

Women over 40 years, those who have completed their families

Answer

Women under 40 years who are desirous of retaining their menstrual and reproduction function

Answer

Young woman suffering from second or third degree prolapse

Question 7

Fat necrosis is common in:

Accepted Answer

Breast

Answer

Retroperitoneal fat

Answer

Omentum

Answer

All of the options

Question 8

Which of the following is the most frequent primary malignant tumor of the CNS?

Accepted Answer

Glioblastoma multiforme

Answer

Oligodendroglioma

Answer

Medulloblastoma

Answer

Meningioma

Question 9

Autosomal recessive Polycystic kidneys - all are true except -

Accepted Answer

USG shows salt and pepper appearance

Answer

Defective gene is PKHD1

Answer

Both kidneys show innumerable cysts

Answer

Seen in adults

Question 10

Stress induced hyperglycemia is mediated through which hormone:

Accepted Answer

Cortisol

Answer

Epinephrine

Answer

Insulin

Answer

Growth hormone

NEET-PG 2015

Anatomy

Community Medicine

Dermatology

Obstetrics and Gynecology

Pathology

Physiology