Anatomy
1 questionsTrigone of urinary bladder develops from:
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1331: Trigone of urinary bladder develops from:
- A. Ectoderm
- B. Mesoderm (Correct Answer)
- C. None of the options
- D. Endoderm of urachus
Explanation: ***Mesoderm*** - The **trigone** of the urinary bladder develops from the **distal ends of the mesonephric (Wolffian) ducts**, which are **mesodermal in origin**. - These ducts are **absorbed into the posterior wall of the bladder**, forming the smooth triangular area between the two ureteric orifices and the internal urethral orifice [1]. - Although the epithelium of the trigone is later **replaced by endodermal epithelium** from the urogenital sinus, the **structural origin remains mesodermal**. - This is a classic example of **epithelial metaplasia** where endodermal epithelium replaces mesodermal tissue. *Endoderm of urachus* - The **urachus** is the fibrous remnant of the allantois that connects the apex of the bladder to the umbilicus. - It forms the **median umbilical ligament** in adults and does **not contribute to the trigone**. - The **urogenital sinus** (endodermal) forms the majority of the bladder body, but not the trigone. *Ectoderm* - The **ectoderm** forms the nervous system, epidermis, and sensory epithelia. - It does **not contribute** to the development of the urinary bladder or its trigone. - The urinary system is derived from **mesoderm** (kidneys, ureters, trigone) and **endoderm** (bladder body, urethra). *None of the options* - This is incorrect because **mesoderm** is the correct embryological origin of the trigone. - The mesonephric ducts that form the trigone are definitively mesodermal structures.
Forensic Medicine
1 questionsDuring a postmortem examination of a young adult found with a faded tattoo, relatives mentioned that the tattoo was once visible. What is the best method to identify the tattoo?
NEET-PG 2015 - Forensic Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1331: During a postmortem examination of a young adult found with a faded tattoo, relatives mentioned that the tattoo was once visible. What is the best method to identify the tattoo?
- A. Use a spectrophotometer for analysis
- B. Illuminate with ordinary light
- C. Perform an X-ray examination
- D. Illuminate with ultraviolet (UV) light (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Illuminate with ultraviolet (UV) light*** - **UV light** causes residual tattoo pigments, even faded ones, to **fluoresce**, making them visible again for identification. - This method is particularly effective for **older or faded tattoos** where the pigment has degraded or spread. *Use a spectrophotometer for analysis* - A spectrophotometer is used to measure the **intensity of light** as a function of wavelength, which is useful for **analyzing chemical components or color intensity**. - While it can analyze pigments, it is not the primary or most practical method for merely **identifying the presence and pattern of a faded tattoo** on skin, especially in a postmortem context. *Illuminate with ordinary light* - **Ordinary visible light** is typically insufficient to reveal tattoos that have significantly faded or been subjected to processes that obscure them. - If the tattoo is already faded to the point of being invisible to the naked eye, **ordinary light will not enhance its visibility** as it lacks the specific wavelengths needed to cause fluorescence. *Perform an X-ray examination* - **X-rays** are used to visualize dense structures like **bones and foreign bodies**, not for examining skin or pigments. - Tattoo pigments are generally **not radiopaque** and would not be visible on an X-ray film, rendering this method useless for tattoo identification.
General Medicine
1 questionsWhich of the following syndromes is least likely to be associated with obesity?
NEET-PG 2015 - General Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1331: Which of the following syndromes is least likely to be associated with obesity?
- A. Cushing syndrome
- B. Prader willi syndrome
- C. Sipple syndrome (Correct Answer)
- D. Pickwickian syndrome
Explanation: ***Sipple syndrome*** - Sipple syndrome, also known as **multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2**, is primarily associated with **medullary thyroid carcinoma** and does not typically correlate with obesity. - It includes signs like **pheochromocytoma** and **hyperparathyroidism**, but obesity is not a prominent feature. *Cushing syndrome* - Cushing syndrome leads to **excess cortisol**, commonly resulting in weight gain and central obesity [1]. - Characteristic features include **moon facies**, **buffalo hump**, and easy bruising, all associated with obesity [1]. *Pickwinian syndrome* - Pickwinian syndrome, characterized by **severe obesity**, is a condition primarily affecting physical stature and weight. - It is linked to **hypoventilation** and sleep apnea, reinforcing the presence of obesity. *Prader willi syndrome* - Prader-Willi syndrome is marked by **insatiable hunger** leading to **obesity** due to hypothalamic dysfunction [2]. - Individuals with this condition also demonstrate **hypotonia** and developmental delays, commonly accompanied by obesity [2]. **References:** [1] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. The Endocrine System, pp. 1127-1129. [2] Kumar V, Abbas AK, et al.. Robbins and Cotran Pathologic Basis of Disease. 9th ed. Central Nervous System Synapse, pp. 454-455.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsSausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1331: Sausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Rickets
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Psoriatic arthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriatic arthritis*** - **Dactylitis**, or "sausage finger," is a characteristic inflammatory finding in psoriatic arthritis, resulting from inflammation of the **entire digit** [1]. - This condition involves inflammation of tendons, joints, and soft tissues which leads to diffuse swelling of fingers or toes [1]. *Rickets* - Rickets is a bone-softening disease in children caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to bone deformities like bowed legs or widened wrists. - It does not present with inflammatory dactylitis or "sausage digits." *Hyperthyroidism* - Hyperthyroidism is a condition of excessive thyroid hormone production, which can cause symptoms like **tremors**, **tachycardia**, and **weight loss** [2]. - It is not associated with dactylitis or changes in finger morphology. *Addison's disease* - Addison's disease results from **adrenal insufficiency**, leading to symptoms like **fatigue**, **skin hyperpigmentation**, and hypotension. - There is no clinical association between Addison's disease and "sausage finger" appearance.
Question 1332: A 50 year old male presents with fever and malaise for 4 months and pain in the knees and ankles. Blood tests are normal apart from a raised ESR. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar adenopathy and pulmonary infiltrates most severe in the upper and mid zones. Mantoux test is negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- A. Tuberculosis
- B. Sarcoidosis (Correct Answer)
- C. Asbestosis
- D. Berylliosis
Explanation: ***Sarcoidosis*** - The constellation of **bilateral hilar adenopathy**, pulmonary infiltrates (especially in upper/mid zones), **arthralgia** (knees and ankles), and a **negative Mantoux test** in a patient with unexplained fever and malaise is highly suggestive of sarcoidosis [1]. - A **raised ESR** is a non-specific inflammatory marker often seen in sarcoidosis. *Tuberculosis* - While tuberculosis can cause fever, malaise, pulmonary infiltrates, and elevated ESR, a **negative Mantoux test** makes primary or active tuberculosis less likely in an immunocompetent individual. - **Bilateral hilar adenopathy** is also less typical of primary pulmonary tuberculosis compared to sarcoidosis. *Asbestosis* - This is an **occupational lung disease** caused by asbestos exposure, primarily presenting with **progressive dyspnea** and **restrictive lung disease**. - It characteristically involves the **lower lobes**, causes **pleural plaques**, and is not typically associated with acute arthralgia, fever, or prominent hilar adenopathy. *Berylliosis* - This is another **occupational lung disease** resulting from beryllium exposure, often mimicking sarcoidosis both clinically and pathologically [2]. - However, without a history of **beryllium exposure** and given the classic presentation, sarcoidosis is a more prevalent default diagnosis [2].
Microbiology
1 questionsNeutralization test is
NEET-PG 2015 - Microbiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1331: Neutralization test is
- A. Widal test
- B. Weil-Felix test
- C. Paul-Bunnell test
- D. Nagler reaction (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Nagler reaction*** - The **Nagler reaction** is a biochemical test used to identify **Clostridium perfringens**, based on its ability to produce **alpha-toxin (lecithinase)**, which hydrolyzes lecithin in egg yolk agar. - It is a neutralization test because the lecithinase activity can be **inhibited (neutralized)** by antitoxin, leading to a diminished zone of opalescence or turbidity around colonies grown on egg yolk agar. *Widal test* - The **Widal test** is an **agglutination test** used to diagnose **typhoid fever** by detecting antibodies against *Salmonella typhi* O and H antigens in a patient's serum. - It measures the presence of antibodies that cause bacterial clumping, not the neutralization of a toxin. *Weil-Felix test* - The **Weil-Felix test** is an **agglutination test** used to diagnose **rickettsial infections** like epidemic typhus, scrub typhus, and Rocky Mountain spotted fever. - It detects antibodies that cross-react with specific **Proteus vulgaris** antigens, and is not a neutralization assay for toxins or enzymes. *Paul Bunnel test* - The **Paul-Bunnell test** is an **agglutination test** used to diagnose **infectious mononucleosis** by detecting heterophile antibodies that agglutinate sheep red blood cells. - It relies on the clumping of red blood cells by antibodies and does not involve the neutralization of a microbial product.
Radiology
4 questionsInvestigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage is -
Epidural hematoma on CT scan shows which of the following?
Investigation of choice for soft tissue sarcoma is -
On CT chest, the 'halo sign' is particularly associated with which condition in immunocompromised patients?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1331: Investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage is -
- A. NCCT (Correct Answer)
- B. MRI
- C. PET scan
- D. None of the options
Explanation: ***NCCT*** - **Non-contrast Computed Tomography (NCCT)** is the investigation of choice for acute intracerebral hemorrhage because it can **rapidly and reliably detect acute blood** within the brain parenchyma. - Acute hemorrhage appears as a **hyperdense (bright) lesion** on NCCT, allowing for quick diagnosis and management vital in emergency settings. *MRI* - While MRI can detect hemorrhage, its sensitivity for **acute hemorrhage** can be variable, and it is **less readily available** and takes longer to perform than NCCT. - MRI is generally preferred for subacute or chronic hemorrhage, or to investigate the **underlying cause** of the bleed (e.g., tumor, vascular malformation). *PET scan* - **Positron Emission Tomography (PET) scan** primarily measures **metabolic activity** and blood flow within the brain. - It is **not suitable for detecting acute bleeding** and is typically used for diagnosing conditions like tumors, epilepsy, or neurodegenerative diseases. *None of the options* - This option is incorrect because **NCCT** is indeed the gold standard for diagnosing acute intracerebral hemorrhage.
Question 1332: Epidural hematoma on CT scan shows which of the following?
- A. Biconvex hyperdense lesion (Correct Answer)
- B. Crescent-shaped hyperdense lesion
- C. Biconcave hypodense lesion
- D. Ring-enhancing hypodense lesion
Explanation: ***Biconvex hyperdense lesion*** - An epidural hematoma is characterized by a **biconvex** (lens-shaped) collection of blood between the dura mater and the skull. - Since it is an acute hemorrhage, the blood appears **hyperdense** (bright white) on a CT scan. *Crescent-shaped hyperdense lesion* - A **crescent shape** is characteristic of an **acute subdural hematoma**, not an epidural hematoma. - While acute subdural hematomas are also hyperdense, their crescent shape (following the contour of the brain) distinguishes them from the biconvex epidural hematomas. - Epidural hematomas are limited by suture lines and appear lens-shaped, while subdural hematomas can cross suture lines. *Biconcave hypodense lesion* - A **biconcave** shape is not a standard description in neuroradiology and does not represent epidural hematoma. - **Hypodense** would indicate an older lesion or other pathology, not acute hemorrhage. *Ring-enhancing hypodense lesion* - **Ring-enhancing lesions** are typically associated with abscesses, glioblastoma, or metastatic tumors, not an acute hematoma. - A **hypodense** (darker) center with enhancement would indicate an abscess or necrotic tumor, not a fresh extravasation of blood.
Question 1333: Investigation of choice for soft tissue sarcoma is -
- A. CT
- B. MRI (Correct Answer)
- C. Ultrasound
- D. X-ray
Explanation: ***MRI*** - **Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI)** is the investigation of choice for soft tissue sarcomas due to its superior **soft tissue contrast resolution**, allowing for detailed assessment of tumor size, location, and extent within muscle, fat, and neurovascular structures. - MRI is crucial for **surgical planning**, helping to define tumor margins and evaluate involvement of adjacent critical structures. *CT* - While CT scans can identify masses, they have **limited soft tissue contrast resolution** compared to MRI, making it less effective for precise delineation of soft tissue sarcomas. - CT is often used for **staging to detect metastatic disease**, particularly in the lungs, rather than for primary tumor characterization. *Ultrasound* - **Ultrasound** is a good initial screening tool for soft tissue masses due to its accessibility and lack of radiation, but it is **operator-dependent** and has limitations in assessing deep or large lesions. - It can help differentiate cystic from solid lesions and guide biopsies but **lacks the comprehensive detail** of MRI for definitive diagnosis and staging. *X-ray* - **X-rays** are primarily used to visualize **bone abnormalities** and are generally not effective for evaluating soft tissue masses unless there is associated calcification or bone erosion. - They provide **minimal information** regarding the internal structure or extent of a soft tissue sarcoma.
Question 1334: On CT chest, the 'halo sign' is particularly associated with which condition in immunocompromised patients?
- A. Pulmonary hydatid cyst
- B. Round pneumonia
- C. Bronchiectasis
- D. Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Invasive pulmonary aspergillosis*** - The **halo sign** on CT chest, characterized by a ground-glass opacity surrounding a nodule, is a classic radiographic finding in **invasive pulmonary aspergillosis**, especially in immunocompromised patients. - This sign represents hemorrhage around the fungal nodule and indicates active tissue invasion by *Aspergillus* species. *Pulmonary hydatid cyst* - Hydatid cysts are typically well-defined, thin-walled cystic lesions, often displaying the **water lily sign** if complicated by rupture, which is different from the halo sign. - These cysts are caused by the larval stage of *Echinococcus granulosus* and are not associated with a peripheral ground-glass opacity. *Round pneumonia* - Round pneumonia is a localized, **spherical consolidation** often seen in children, which does not typically exhibit the perilesional ground-glass opacity characteristic of the halo sign. - It usually represents bacterial infection and resolves with antibiotics, unlike the invasive fungal disease suggested by the halo sign. *Bronchiectasis* - Bronchiectasis is characterized by **irreversible dilation of the bronchi**, often appearing as "tram-track" opacities or "signet ring" signs on CT. - It is a chronic condition related to airway damage and mucus retention, and not associated with acute nodular lesions or the halo sign.