Internal Medicine
1 questionsSausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Sausage finger appearance is associated with which of the following conditions?
- A. Rickets
- B. Hyperthyroidism
- C. Addison's disease
- D. Psoriatic arthritis (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Psoriatic arthritis*** - **Dactylitis**, or "sausage finger," is a characteristic inflammatory finding in psoriatic arthritis, resulting from inflammation of the **entire digit** [1]. - This condition involves inflammation of tendons, joints, and soft tissues which leads to diffuse swelling of fingers or toes [1]. *Rickets* - Rickets is a bone-softening disease in children caused by **vitamin D deficiency**, leading to bone deformities like bowed legs or widened wrists. - It does not present with inflammatory dactylitis or "sausage digits." *Hyperthyroidism* - Hyperthyroidism is a condition of excessive thyroid hormone production, which can cause symptoms like **tremors**, **tachycardia**, and **weight loss** [2]. - It is not associated with dactylitis or changes in finger morphology. *Addison's disease* - Addison's disease results from **adrenal insufficiency**, leading to symptoms like **fatigue**, **skin hyperpigmentation**, and hypotension. - There is no clinical association between Addison's disease and "sausage finger" appearance.
Obstetrics and Gynecology
1 questionsMost common antigen involved in erythroblastosis fetalis is:
NEET-PG 2015 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Most common antigen involved in erythroblastosis fetalis is:
- A. C antigen in Rh group
- B. E antigen in Rh group
- C. Duffy antigen
- D. D antigen in Rh group (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***D antigen in Rh group*** - The **D antigen** is the most immunogenic of the Rh antigens and is responsible for the vast majority of cases of **erythroblastosis fetalis** (hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn). - When an **Rh-negative mother** is exposed to Rh-positive fetal blood (usually during previous pregnancies or transfusions), she can form antibodies against the D antigen, which can then cross the placenta in subsequent pregnancies and attack Rh-positive fetal red blood cells. *C antigen in Rh group* - While the **C antigen** is part of the Rh blood group system, antibodies to it are much less common and typically cause less severe hemolytic disease compared to anti-D antibodies. - The C antigen is less immunogenic than the D antigen, meaning it is less likely to provoke an immune response in an Rh-negative individual. *E antigen in Rh group* - Similar to the C antigen, the **E antigen** is another Rh antigen, but antibodies against it (anti-E) are also less frequently implicated in severe erythroblastosis fetalis than anti-D. - Antibodies to E can cause hemolytic disease, but their clinical significance is usually milder than that of anti-D. *Duffy antigen* - The **Duffy antigen system** is separate from the Rh system and is known for its role in resistance to certain malarial parasites (e.g., *Plasmodium vivax*). - Although antibodies to Duffy antigens (anti-Fya, anti-Fyb) can cause **hemolytic disease of the fetus/newborn**, they are a far less common cause of erythroblastosis fetalis than antibodies to the Rh D antigen.
Pediatrics
5 questionsA 3-month-old child presents with indrawing of the chest and a respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute. This condition can be classified as:
A 45-day-old infant presents with seizures. Examination reveals he is icteric, has bulging fontanelles, and exhibits opisthotonic posture. Which of the following treatments is NOT indicated?
Chronic lung disease in infancy is defined as
Erythematous blotchy rash is seen on the abdomen, trunk, and face of a 3-day-old child along with yellowish papules. The child appears well. What is the appropriate management?
Further investigation is essential in a newborn with which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: A 3-month-old child presents with indrawing of the chest and a respiratory rate of 52 breaths per minute. This condition can be classified as:
- A. SIRS
- B. Respiratory distress (Correct Answer)
- C. Tachypnoea
- D. ARDS
Explanation: ***Respiratory distress*** - **Indrawing of the chest** is a classic sign of increased work of breathing, indicating the child is struggling to oxygenate. - A respiratory rate of **52 breaths per minute in a 3-month-old** is significantly elevated and, combined with indrawing, points to respiratory distress. - According to **WHO IMCI guidelines**, chest indrawing in a child with fast breathing is classified as **pneumonia/respiratory distress** requiring immediate treatment. *SIRS* - **Systemic Inflammatory Response Syndrome (SIRS)** criteria are typically more comprehensive and include fever or hypothermia, tachycardia, tachypnea, and abnormal white blood cell count. - While tachypnea is present, the other defining features of SIRS are not fully met by the information provided, nor does indrawing directly classify as SIRS. *Tachypnoea* - **Tachypnoea** refers specifically to an elevated respiratory rate, which is present (52 breaths per minute). - However, the presence of **chest indrawing** indicates more than just rapid breathing; it signifies significant respiratory effort and compromise. - The classification must capture both the elevated rate and the increased work of breathing. *ARDS* - **Acute Respiratory Distress Syndrome (ARDS)** is a severe form of lung injury characterized by widespread inflammation, hypoxemia, and bilateral infiltrates on chest imaging. - While respiratory distress is a feature of ARDS, the given information is insufficient to diagnose ARDS, which requires specific criteria relating to oxygenation and radiological findings.
Question 1282: A 45-day-old infant presents with seizures. Examination reveals he is icteric, has bulging fontanelles, and exhibits opisthotonic posture. Which of the following treatments is NOT indicated?
- A. Chlorpromazine (Correct Answer)
- B. Phenobarbital
- C. Phototherapy
- D. Exchange Transfusion
Explanation: ***Chlorpromazine*** - Chlorpromazine is an **antipsychotic medication** and is **contraindicated** in infants, especially in the presence of seizures and central nervous system (CNS) dysfunction, due to its potential to **lower the seizure threshold** and cause severe extrapyramidal symptoms. - Its mechanism of action via **dopamine receptor blockade** is not relevant for treating bilirubin encephalopathy or its symptoms. *Phototherapy* - Phototherapy is a primary treatment for **neonatal jaundice** to reduce unconjugated bilirubin levels and prevent neurotoxicity. - While the infant's condition suggests severe hyperbilirubinemia with complications, phototherapy would still be indicated as an initial step or adjunct to further interventions, especially if the bilirubin levels are still rising. *Exchange Transfusion* - Exchange transfusion is a **definitive treatment** for severe hyperbilirubinemia, especially when there are signs of **acute bilirubin encephalopathy (kernicterus)**, as suggested by seizures, bulging fontanelles, and opisthotonus. - It rapidly removes bilirubin from the blood and is crucial to prevent further neurological damage in such critical cases. *Phenobarbital* - Phenobarbital is an **anticonvulsant** used to manage seizures, which are a prominent symptom in this infant. - It can also help to **induce hepatic enzymes** involved in bilirubin metabolism, thereby potentially aiding in the reduction of bilirubin levels in cases of severe hyperbilirubinemia, though its primary role here would be seizure control.
Question 1283: Chronic lung disease in infancy is defined as
- A. Need for supplemental oxygen at 36 weeks postmenstrual age (Correct Answer)
- B. Tachypnoea > 50 breaths/ min within 1 week of birth
- C. Presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest Xray for 2 weeks
- D. Reticulogranular pattern on chest Xray for 6 weeks
Explanation: ***Need for supplemental oxygen at 36 weeks after conception*** - **Chronic lung disease (CLD)**, also known as **bronchopulmonary dysplasia (BPD)**, is defined by the need for **supplemental oxygen** at 36 weeks postmenstrual age (corrected gestational age) or at 56 days postnatal age, whichever comes first, for infants born before 32 weeks gestation. - This definition reflects persistent respiratory morbidity requiring ongoing support, indicative of lung injury and abnormal development. *Tachypnoea > 50 breaths/ min within 1 week of birth* - **Tachypnoea** within the first week of birth can be a symptom of various neonatal respiratory conditions, such as **transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN)** or **respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)**, but it is not a defining feature of CLD. - CLD is characterized by a *prolonged* need for respiratory support, not just an acute symptom in the first week. *Presence of bilateral infiltrates on chest Xray for 2 weeks* - **Bilateral infiltrates** on a chest X-ray over two weeks could suggest conditions like **pneumonia** or **ARDS**, but it is not the diagnostic criterion for CLD. - The definition of CLD focuses on the physiological need for oxygen, rather than specific radiographic findings in isolation. *Reticulogranular pattern on chest Xray for 6 weeks* - A **reticulogranular pattern** on chest X-ray is characteristic of **respiratory distress syndrome (RDS)**, typically seen in premature infants due to surfactant deficiency. - While RDS can precede CLD, a **reticulogranular pattern** typically improves with treatment (surfactant therapy, ventilation) and does not persist for 6 weeks as a defining feature of chronic lung disease.
Question 1284: Erythematous blotchy rash is seen on the abdomen, trunk, and face of a 3-day-old child along with yellowish papules. The child appears well. What is the appropriate management?
- A. Topical steroid and antibiotic lotion
- B. Topical steroid cream
- C. Intravenous antibiotics
- D. No treatment (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***No treatment (Correct Answer)*** The described symptoms—erythematous blotchy rash with yellowish papules on the abdomen, trunk, and face in a well-appearing 3-day-old neonate—are **classic for erythema toxicum neonatorum**. **Key Features:** - **Benign, self-limiting rash** of unknown etiology - Affects **50-70% of term newborns** - Typically appears on **days 2-5** of life - Characterized by **erythematous macules/patches** with overlying **yellowish-white papules/pustules** - Infant appears **well and thriving** - **Resolves spontaneously** within 1-2 weeks without treatment - Histology shows **eosinophils** in pustules **Management:** Reassurance to parents; no medical intervention required. --- *Topical steroid and antibiotic lotion (Incorrect)* This approach is inappropriate because erythema toxicum neonatorum is: - **Not an infection** (no bacterial or fungal cause) - **Not an inflammatory condition** requiring steroids - Misdiagnosis and overtreatment could lead to unnecessary side effects, antibiotic resistance, and mask other conditions --- *Topical steroid cream (Incorrect)* Topical steroids are: - **Unnecessary** for this benign, self-resolving condition - **Potentially harmful** in neonates (can cause skin atrophy, increased absorption) - Provide **no therapeutic benefit** for erythema toxicum neonatorum --- *Intravenous antibiotics (Incorrect)* Systemic antibiotics are: - **Entirely unwarranted** as this is a non-infectious, benign rash - Would represent **gross overtreatment** with significant risks - Contribute to **antibiotic resistance** - Carry risks of adverse reactions, disruption of normal flora, and unnecessary hospitalization **Differentials to consider (but not present here):** - Transient neonatal pustular melanosis (present at birth) - Neonatal acne (appears later, at 2-4 weeks) - Miliaria (smaller, clear vesicles) - Infectious causes (infant appears ill, requires septic workup)
Question 1285: Further investigation is essential in a newborn with which of the following conditions?
- A. Vaginal bleed
- B. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
- C. Lens opacity (Correct Answer)
- D. Erythema toxicum
Explanation: ***Lens opacity*** - A **lens opacity** in a newborn suggests congenital **cataracts**, which can lead to permanent vision impairment if not identified and treated early. - **Investigation is essential** to identify underlying causes such as **TORCH infections** (Toxoplasmosis, Rubella, CMV, HSV), **metabolic disorders** (galactosemia, Lowe syndrome), **genetic syndromes**, or **chromosomal abnormalities**. - Early detection and management are crucial to prevent **amblyopia** (lazy eye) and optimize visual development during the **critical period** of visual maturation. - Investigations include: TORCH titers, urine for reducing substances, metabolic screening, and genetic evaluation. *Erythema toxicum* - This is a common, **benign newborn rash** characterized by blotchy red macules and papules with central vesicles or pustules. - It typically resolves spontaneously within days to a few weeks and requires **no specific investigation or treatment**. *Vaginal bleed* - A small amount of **vaginal bleeding** in female newborns is usually due to the temporary withdrawal of maternal hormones (e.g., estrogen) after birth. - This is a **physiologic response** and generally self-resolves, requiring no further investigation unless excessive or prolonged. *Subconjunctival hemorrhage* - This occurs due to the rupture of tiny blood vessels in the eye during the birthing process, often associated with **vaginal delivery**. - It is a **benign condition** that resolves on its own within a couple of weeks and does not affect vision.
Pharmacology
1 questionsWhich of the following drugs is an alpha 2 agonist?
NEET-PG 2015 - Pharmacology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Which of the following drugs is an alpha 2 agonist?
- A. Apraclonidine (Correct Answer)
- B. Timolol
- C. PG analogues
- D. Verapamil
Explanation: ***Apraclonidine*** - **Apraclonidine** is a synthetic **alpha-2 adrenergic agonist** that reduces aqueous humor production and increases uveoscleral outflow, thereby lowering intraocular pressure. - It is primarily used for the short-term treatment of **open-angle glaucoma** or ocular hypertension. *Timolol* - **Timolol** is a **non-selective beta-adrenergic blocker** that reduces aqueous humor production, leading to a decrease in intraocular pressure. - It does not act on alpha-2 receptors, distinguishing it from apraclonidine. *PG analogues* - **Prostaglandin analogues** (PG analogues) such as latanoprost, bimatoprost, and travoprost are primarily used to treat glaucoma by **increasing uveoscleral outflow** of aqueous humor. - They act on **prostaglandin F2α receptors**, not alpha-2 adrenergic receptors. *Verapamil* - **Verapamil** is a **calcium channel blocker** primarily used to treat hypertension, angina, and arrhythmias. - It acts by blocking calcium channels in vascular smooth muscle and the heart, and does not have significant alpha-2 adrenergic agonist activity.
Psychiatry
1 questionsThe site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is
NEET-PG 2015 - Psychiatry NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: The site of lesion in Korsakoff's psychosis is
- A. Frontal lobe
- B. Mammillary body (Correct Answer)
- C. Cingulate gyrus
- D. Corpus striatum
Explanation: ***Mammillary body*** - **Korsakoff's psychosis** is a neurocognitive disorder characterized by severe **memory impairment**, confabulation, and apathy, primarily due to **thiamine deficiency**. - The disease involves damage to several brain areas, most notably the **mammillary bodies** and the dorsal medial nucleus of the thalamus, which are critical for memory formation. *Frontal lobe* - While frontal lobe dysfunction can lead to cognitive deficits, the **primary lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis is not typically located here. - Damage to the frontal lobe is more commonly associated with executive dysfunction, personality changes, and disinhibition, rather than the profound amnesia seen in Korsakoff's. *Cingulate gyrus* - The cingulate gyrus plays a role in emotion, learning, and memory, but it is **not considered the primary site of lesion** in Korsakoff's psychosis. - Although it can be affected, lesions in the mammillary bodies are more directly linked to the characteristic memory deficits. *Corpus striatum* - The corpus striatum is involved in motor control and habit formation, and its damage is associated with movement disorders like **Parkinson's or Huntington's disease**. - This area is **not the primary site of pathology** in Korsakoff's psychosis, which is fundamentally a memory disorder.
Radiology
1 questionsCobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of?
NEET-PG 2015 - Radiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1281: Cobra head appearance on excretory urography is suggestive of?
- A. Horseshoe kidney
- B. Duplication of renal pelvis
- C. Simple cyst of kidney
- D. Ureterocele (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Ureterocele*** - A **cobra head appearance** on excretory urography is a classic sign of a **ureterocele**, which is a cystic dilation of the distal ureter that protrudes into the bladder. - This appearance is due to the dilated ureter appearing like an oval or round filling defect within the bladder lumen, surrounded by a thin radiolucent halo created by the ureteral wall and urine. *Horseshoe kidney* - A horseshoe kidney is characterized by the fusion of the lower poles of the kidneys, causing a **"U" shape** across the midline, often identified by the isthmus. - It does not present with a cobra head appearance but rather a typical anatomical variation of renal position and fusion. *Duplication of renal pelvis* - Duplication of the renal pelvis involves two separate collecting systems draining one kidney, which can be seen as two distinct pelvicalyceal systems. - This condition does not create a cobra head appearance; instead, it shows an abnormal number of collecting systems within a single kidney. *Simple cyst of kidney* - A simple renal cyst typically appears as a **well-defined, anechoic (on ultrasound) or hypodense (on CT) mass** within the kidney parenchyma. - It does not involve the ureter or bladder and thus does not produce a cobra head appearance on urograms.