NEET-PG 2015 Practice Questions

Q: A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?

Thomas test. ***Thomas test*** - The **Thomas test** is specifically designed to detect a **fixed flexion deformity of the hip**, where the hip cannot fully extend. - During the test, the patient's hip is flexed to flatten the lumbar spine, and if the contralateral leg then rises off the table, it indicates a fixed flexion deformity. *Trendelenburg's test* - The **Trendelenburg's test** assesses the strength and function of the **hip abductor muscles**, primarily the gluteus medius. - A positive result indicates weakness of the abductors on the standing leg, causing the pelvis to drop on the unsupported side, which is unrelated to fixed flexion deformity. *Nelaton's test* - **Nelaton's test** is used to determine the relative position of the **greater trochanter** in relation to the **ischial tuberosity** and **anterior superior iliac spine (ASIS)**, primarily in cases of hip dislocation or fracture. - It would not specifically identify a fixed flexion deformity of the hip joint itself. *Telescoping test* - The **telescoping test** is used to evaluate for hip instability, particularly in infants with **developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH)**. - It involves applying axial pressure to the femur while moving the hip, assessing for abnormal movement of the femoral head within the acetabulum, and does not directly detect fixed flexion deformity.

Q: The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?

Metacarpophalangeal joint. ***Metacarpophalangeal joint*** - The **A1 pulley** is located at the base of the finger, overlying the **metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint**. - Its pathological thickening or narrowing can impede the smooth gliding of **flexor tendons**, causing **trigger finger**. *Proximal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A2** and **A3 pulleys** are located at the level of the **proximal phalanx** and **proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint**, respectively. - While essential for tendon function, they are not primarily involved in typical **trigger finger**. *Distal Interphalangeal joint* - The **A4** and **A5 pulleys** are located at the level of the **middle phalanx** and **distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint**, respectively. - Pathologies at these pulleys are less common in trigger finger and typically affect the **distal tendon glide**. *Carpometacarpal joint* - The **carpometacarpal (CMC) joints** are located at the base of the hand, between the carpal bones and metacarpals. - There are no A pulleys associated with the CMC joints, and they are not directly involved in the mechanism of **trigger finger**.

Q: Aeroplane splint is used in ?

Brachial plexus injury. ***Brachial plexus injury*** - The **aeroplane splint** is specifically designed to support the arm in **abduction** and **external rotation** at the shoulder, with the elbow flexed. - This position helps to relieve tension on the injured **brachial plexus** nerves and prevents contractures, particularly after an **upper brachial plexus injury** (e.g., Erb's palsy). *Radial nerve injury* - Radial nerve injuries typically present with **wrist drop** and difficulty with finger extension. - Splints for radial nerve injury, such as a **dynamic wrist extension splint**, focus on supporting wrist and finger extension, not shoulder abduction. *Ulnar nerve injury* - Ulnar nerve injuries lead to a **claw hand deformity** and sensory loss in the pinky and half of the ring finger. - Splints for ulnar nerve injury aim to prevent hyperextension of the metacarpophalangeal joints and support the interphalangeal joints, often involving static or dynamic splints for the hand. *Scoliosis* - Scoliosis is a **lateral curvature of the spine**, usually treated with bracing (e.g., Boston brace or Milwaukee brace) or surgery. - An aeroplane splint has no role in the management or treatment of scoliosis.

Q: All of the following are true regarding the application of POP Cast except -

It is anhydrous Calcium phosphate. ***It is anhydrous Calcium phosphate*** - **Plaster of Paris (POP)** is chemically **calcium sulfate hemihydrate** (CaSO₄·½H₂O), not anhydrous calcium phosphate. - Adding water to calcium sulfate hemihydrate causes an exothermic reaction, forming **calcium sulfate dihydrate**, which is the hardened cast. *Putting the Plaster roll in warm water hastens setting time* - **Warm water** increases the rate of the chemical reaction that causes POP to set, thus **hastening the setting time**. - While it speeds up setting, excessively hot water can lead to a cast that sets too quickly or becomes brittle. *It can be applied in presence of extreme swelling* - Applying a non-flexible POP cast in the presence of **extreme swelling** is contraindicated because swelling will rapidly resolve, making the cast loose and ineffective. - Furthermore, if swelling increases unexpectedly under a tight cast, it can lead to dangerous **compartment syndrome**. *Gangrene is known complication of a tight plaster cast* - A **tight plaster cast** can compromise blood supply to the limb by compressing arteries and veins, potentially leading to **ischemia**. - Prolonged ischemia due to a tight cast can cause **tissue necrosis** and ultimately **gangrene** if not identified and treated promptly.

Q: During performing a total hip replacement, the surgeon found destruction of the articular cartilage and multiple wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. What is this called?

Osteonecrosis. ***Osteonecrosis*** - **Osteonecrosis**, also known as **avascular necrosis**, is characterized by the death of bone tissue due to a lack of blood supply, which leads to the collapse of the subchondral bone and articular cartilage destruction. - The description of **wedge-shaped subchondral depressions** and **articular cartilage destruction** is highly indicative of osteonecrosis, especially in the context of advanced hip joint pathology requiring total hip replacement. *Osteolysis* - **Osteolysis** refers to the active resorption of bone, often seen around implants in prosthetic joints due to wear particles, leading to bone loss. - While it involves bone destruction, it typically presents as diffuse bone loss rather than specific wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. *Osteomyelitis* - **Osteomyelitis** is an infection of the bone or bone marrow, often leading to bone destruction, but it is primarily characterized by inflammation and pus formation. - The presented scenario does not mention signs of infection (e.g., fever, pus, inflammation) but focuses purely on structural destruction consistent with vascular compromise. *Osteogenesis* - **Osteogenesis** is the process of bone formation or development. - This term describes the creation of bone tissue and is the opposite of bone destruction, making it an incorrect answer for a condition involving cartilage and bone deterioration.

Q: The Salter Harris classification is used for classifying which type of injuries?

Fractures involving the physis in children. ***Fractures involving the physis in children*** - The **Salter-Harris classification system** is specifically designed for classifying fractures that involve the **growth plate (physis)** in children. - This system helps predict the risk of **growth disturbance** and guides treatment decisions based on the fracture pattern. *Soft tissue injuries in pediatric patients* - The Salter-Harris classification does not apply to **soft tissue injuries** like sprains or strains. - Soft tissue injuries are assessed using different classification systems or descriptive terms. *Long bone fractures without growth plate involvement* - Fractures in children that do not involve the growth plate are classified using descriptive terms, such as **transverse**, **oblique**, or **spiral fractures**, or other systems like the **AO pediatric classification**, not Salter-Harris. - The Salter-Harris system is unique to physis involvement. *Joint dislocations in pediatric orthopedics* - **Joint dislocations** involve the displacement of bones at a joint and are classified by the direction of displacement (e.g., anterior, posterior). - They do not involve a fracture of the growth plate itself, so the Salter-Harris system is not applicable.

Q: In which condition is the Milwaukee Brace primarily used?

Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis. ***Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis*** - The **Milwaukee Brace** is a widely recognized and historically significant orthotic device used primarily for the non-surgical management of **scoliosis**, particularly **adolescent idiopathic scoliosis**. - It works by applying corrective forces to the spine to prevent further curvature progression and often allows for some correction during growth. *Congenital Kyphosis* - **Congenital kyphosis** is a spinal deformity present at birth, often caused by vertebral malformations, which is typically managed surgically, especially if progressive. - While bracing can be attempted for mild, flexible curves, the Milwaukee Brace is not the primary or most effective treatment for its structural nature. *Scheuermann's Disease* - **Scheuermann's disease** is a form of kyphosis where wedging of the vertebrae causes a rigid, exaggerated forward curvature of the thoracic spine. - While bracing can be used to treat Scheuermann's disease, the **Milwaukee brace** is not the brace of choice. A **kyphosis-specific brace** such as a kyphosis-bifocal brace or a molded thoracolumbar sacral orthosis (TLSO) is typically preferred. *Spondylolisthesis* - **Spondylolisthesis** involves the forward slippage of one vertebra over another, often in the lumbar spine. - Management typically involves activity restriction, physical therapy, and sometimes surgical fusion, with bracing aimed at stabilizing the spine rather than correcting a lateral curve, making the Milwaukee Brace unsuitable.

Q: Vertebra Plana is associated with all of the following conditions except -

Scheurmanns Disease. ***Scheurmanns Disease*** - **Scheuermann's disease** is characterized by **vertebral wedging** and **kyphosis**, not a complete flattening of the vertebral body (vertebra plana). - It involves irregularities of the vertebral endplates and Schmorl's nodes, differing from the destructive process seen in vertebra plana. *Histiocytosis X* - **Histiocytosis X** (Langerhans cell histiocytosis) can cause destructive lesions in the vertebral body, leading to its collapse and the appearance of **vertebra plana**. - This condition is common among young children and is associated with eosinophilic granuloma. *Leukemia* - **Leukemic infiltration** of bone marrow can weaken vertebral bodies, causing **osteopenia** and eventual collapse, which may present as vertebra plana. - This is often seen in pediatric patients with acute lymphoblastic leukemia. *Excessive use of systemic steroids* - Long-term or excessive use of **systemic corticosteroids** can lead to **osteoporosis**, which weakens bones and makes vertebral bodies prone to compression fractures and collapse into vertebra plana. - This iatrogenic cause results from the negative impact of steroids on bone formation and increased bone resorption.

Q: Lift off test is done to assess the function of:

Subscapularis muscle function. ***Subscapularis muscle function*** - The **Lift-off test**, or Gerber's Lift-off test, specifically assesses the integrity and strength of the **subscapularis muscle** by evaluating its internal rotation and extension strength. - A positive test occurs when the patient is unable to lift their hand off their back, indicating a **subscapularis tear or weakness**. *Supraspinatus muscle function* - The **supraspinatus muscle** is primarily tested with the **empty can test** or full can test, which assess its role in shoulder abduction. - These tests evaluate for **impingement** or **tears** of the supraspinatus tendon. *Infraspinatus muscle function* - The **infraspinatus muscle** is mainly responsible for external rotation and is assessed using tests like the **resisted external rotation test** with the arm at the side. - This test is used to detect **infraspinatus tears** or weakness. *Teres Minor muscle function* - The **teres minor muscle** also contributes to external rotation of the shoulder, often tested in conjunction with the infraspinatus. - Its function can be isolated by testing resisted **external rotation** in 90 degrees of abduction and external rotation.

Q: The anterior humeral line and radiocapitellar alignment are most commonly disturbed in -

Supracondylar Fracture of the humerus. ***Supracondylar Fracture of the humerus*** - **Anterior humeral line** passes through the **anterior cortex of the humerus** and should intersect the middle third of the capitellum in a normal elbow. - In supracondylar fractures, particularly those with **posterior displacement**, this line is often displaced **anteriorly or posteriorly**, failing to intersect the capitellum correctly. Additionally, the **radiocapitellar alignment** refers to the relationship between the **radius head** and the **capitellum**. Fractures and displacements around the elbow joint, such as supracondylar fractures, can disrupt this alignment. *Fracture lateral condyle of the humerus* - While a fracture of the lateral condyle can affect the elbow joint, it primarily involves a part of the **articular surface** and not necessarily the overall alignment of the entire distal humerus relative to the capitellum in the same way a supracondylar fracture does. - The **lateral condyle** is a smaller segment, and its fracture may not significantly alter the anterior humeral line **unless there is significant displacement** that indirectly affects the alignment of the capitellum. *Monteggia Fracture dislocation* - A **Monteggia fracture** involves a fracture of the **ulna** with dislocation of the **radial head** at the elbow. - While radiocapitellar alignment is severely disrupted, the **anterior humeral line** itself, which assesses the distal humerus, is typically **unaffected** as the primary injury is in the forearm bones and the radial head. *Fracture of Proximal Radius* - A fracture of the proximal radius (e.g., **radial head or neck fracture**) primarily affects the **radial articular surface** and its alignment with the capitellum. - While **radiocapitellar alignment** would clearly be disturbed, the position of the **distal humerus** relative to the capitellum, which the anterior humeral line evaluates, usually remains intact.

Question 1

A child presented to an orthopaedic clinic with a limp. The surgeon suspected him to have a fixed flexion deformity of the hip. Which test should the surgeon perform to confirm his finding?

Accepted Answer

Thomas test

Answer

Trendelenburgs test

Answer

Telescoping test

Answer

Nelaton's test

Question 2

The A1 pulley involved in trigger finger is located at the level of which joint?

Accepted Answer

Metacarpophalangeal joint

Answer

Proximal Interphalngeal joint

Answer

Carpometacarpal joint

Answer

Distal Interphalangeal joint

Question 3

Aeroplane splint is used in ?

Accepted Answer

Brachial plexus injury

Answer

Ulnar nerve injury

Answer

Radial nerve injury

Answer

Scoliosis

Question 4

All of the following are true regarding the application of POP Cast except -

Accepted Answer

It is anhydrous Calcium phosphate

Answer

It can be applied in presence of extreme swelling

Answer

Gangrene is known complication of a tight plaster cast

Answer

Putting the Plaster roll in warm water hastens setting time

Question 5

During performing a total hip replacement, the surgeon found destruction of the articular cartilage and multiple wedge-shaped subchondral depressions. What is this called?

Accepted Answer

Osteonecrosis

Answer

Osteolysis

Answer

Osteomyelitis

Answer

Osteogenesis

Question 6

The Salter Harris classification is used for classifying which type of injuries?

Accepted Answer

Fractures involving the physis in children

Answer

Soft tissue injuries in pediatric patients

Answer

Long bone fractures without growth plate involvement

Answer

Joint dislocations in pediatric orthopedics

Question 7

In which condition is the Milwaukee Brace primarily used?

Accepted Answer

Adolescent Idiopathic Scoliosis

Answer

Spondylolisthesis

Answer

Scheuermann's Disease

Answer

Congenital Kyphosis

Question 8

Vertebra Plana is associated with all of the following conditions except -

Accepted Answer

Scheurmanns Disease

Answer

Leukemia

Answer

Excessive use of systemic steroids

Answer

Histiocytosis X

Question 9

Lift off test is done to assess the function of:

Accepted Answer

Subscapularis muscle function

Answer

Supraspinatus muscle function

Answer

Infraspinatus muscle function

Answer

Teres Minor muscle function

Question 10

The anterior humeral line and radiocapitellar alignment are most commonly disturbed in -

Accepted Answer

Supracondylar Fracture of the humerus

Answer

Monteggia Fracture dislocation

Answer

Fracture of Proximal Radius

Answer

Fracture lateral condyle of the humerus

NEET-PG 2015

Orthopaedics