Anatomy
3 questionsWhich bones form the floor of the nasal cavity in children?
Which of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?
Which part of the bone is considered the most vascular zone?
NEET-PG 2015 - Anatomy NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Which bones form the floor of the nasal cavity in children?
- A. Nasal bone and maxilla
- B. Vomer and ethmoid
- C. Palatine process of the maxilla and horizontal plate of the palatine bone (Correct Answer)
- D. Nasal crest of maxilla and palatine process of maxilla
Explanation: ***Palatine process of the maxilla and horizontal plate of the palatine bone*** - These two bones form the **hard palate**, which also serves as the **floor of the nasal cavity**. - The **palatine process of the maxilla** forms the anterior two-thirds, while the **horizontal plate of the palatine bone** forms the posterior one-third of the hard palate. *Vomer and ethmoid* - The **vomer** and part of the **ethmoid bone** (specifically the perpendicular plate) contribute to the **nasal septum**, which divides the nasal cavity. - They do not form the floor of the nasal cavity. *Nasal bone and maxilla* - The **nasal bones** form the **bridge of the nose** and part of the roof of the nasal cavity anteriorly. - While the **maxilla** contributes to the floor via its palatine process, the nasal bones do not. *Nasal crest of maxilla and palatine process of maxilla* - The **palatine process of the maxilla** does form part of the floor of the nasal cavity. - However, the **nasal crest of the maxilla** is part of the vomer's articulation and is involved in the septum, not the primary floor structure.
Question 1082: Which of the following structures is present in an XY child but absent in an XX child?
- A. Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)
- B. Prostate gland (Correct Answer)
- C. Ovaries
- D. Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)
Explanation: ***Prostate gland*** - The **prostate gland** is the most characteristic male-specific accessory reproductive organ that is **definitively present in XY and absent in XX individuals**. - It develops from the **urogenital sinus** under the influence of **dihydrotestosterone (DHT)** during embryonic development. - The prostate is a **substantial glandular structure** that surrounds the urethra and produces approximately 30% of seminal fluid. - It has **no homologous structure in females**—there is no female equivalent organ. *Incorrect: Urethral glands (Cowper's glands)* - **Cowper's glands (bulbourethral glands)** are indeed male-specific structures present only in XY individuals. - However, they are **homologous to Bartholin's glands** in females—meaning both develop from similar embryonic tissue (urogenital sinus). - While the question technically could accept this answer, the **prostate gland is the more definitive answer** as it is larger, more clinically significant, and has no female homologue. - Cowper's glands are small pea-sized glands that contribute to pre-ejaculate fluid. *Incorrect: Ovaries* - **Ovaries** are the primary female gonads present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals [1]. - They produce ova and female sex hormones (estrogen and progesterone) [1]. - In XY individuals, the **testes** develop instead under the influence of the SRY gene. *Incorrect: Vestibular glands (Bartholin's glands)* - **Bartholin's glands** are female-specific structures present in **XX individuals**, not XY individuals. - Located at the posterior vaginal opening, they secrete mucus for vaginal lubrication. - They are homologous to Cowper's glands in males but are distinct structures.
Question 1083: Which part of the bone is considered the most vascular zone?
- A. Metaphysis (Correct Answer)
- B. Diaphysis
- C. Epiphysis
- D. Medullary Cavity
Explanation: ***Metaphysis*** - The metaphysis is the most **vascular** part of the bone, containing numerous blood vessels that supply the growing bone. - This high vascularity makes it a common site for **osteomyelitis** and bone tumors due to the abundant blood supply [1]. *Diaphysis* - The diaphysis is the **shaft** or central part of a long bone, primarily composed of **compact bone** [2]. - While it has blood supply through nutrient arteries, its vascularity is less dense compared to the metaphysis. *Epiphysis* - The epiphysis is the **end portion** of a long bone, typically covered by articular cartilage. - It receives its blood supply from periarticular vessels, but is less vascular than the metaphysis, especially in mature bone. *Medullary Cavity* - The medullary cavity is the central cavity of bone shafts where **bone marrow** is stored [2]. - While it contains hematopoietic stem cells and a rich blood supply, the surrounding bone tissue of the metaphysis itself is considered more vascular in terms of nutrient delivery and growth.
Internal Medicine
2 questionsReduced osmolarity ORS does not contain which of the following ions?
Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?
NEET-PG 2015 - Internal Medicine NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Reduced osmolarity ORS does not contain which of the following ions?
- A. Sodium
- B. Potassium
- C. Lactate (Correct Answer)
- D. Citrate
Explanation: ***Lactate*** - The **reduced osmolarity ORS** formulation replaced **bicarbonate** with **citrate** and does not contain lactate. - **Citrate** is preferred over lactate / bicarbonate due to its stability, longer shelf life, and ease of dissolution. *Sodium* - **Sodium** is a crucial component of ORS, as it is co-transported with glucose into enterocytes, facilitating water absorption through **solvent drag**. - Reduced osmolarity ORS has a **lower sodium concentration** (75 mEq/L) compared to standard ORS (90 mEq/L) to minimize hypernatremia risk and enhance water absorption. *Potassium* - **Potassium** is included in ORS to replace intestinal losses, as **diarrhea** leads to significant potassium depletion. - Maintaining adequate **potassium levels** is essential for normal cellular function and preventing hypokalemia-related complications. *Citrate* - **Citrate** is a component of ORS that serves as an **alkalinizing agent** to correct metabolic acidosis often associated with dehydration in diarrheal diseases. - It also enhances the absorption of sodium and water in the intestine.
Question 1082: Therapeutic phlebotomy is not done in which of the following conditions?
- A. CML (Correct Answer)
- B. Polycythemia vera
- C. Hemochromatosis
- D. Porphyria cutanea tarda
Explanation: CML - **Chronic Myeloid Leukemia (CML)** is typically treated with targeted therapies like **Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitors** (e.g., Imatinib), not phlebotomy [1]. - Therapeutic phlebotomy is ineffective in managing the **hypercellularity** or symptoms associated with this condition compared to other conditions [1]. *Polycythemia vera* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is a key treatment in **Polycythemia vera** to reduce **hyperviscosity** symptoms. - This condition features increased red blood cell mass, which is directly addressed by phlebotomy. *Hemochromatosis* - In **Hemochromatosis**, phlebotomy is employed to lower **iron overload** by removing excess iron from the body. - This reduces the risk of complications such as **liver cirrhosis** and **diabetes** associated with iron excess. *Porphyria cutanea tarda* - Therapeutic phlebotomy is sometimes used in cases of **Porphyria cutanea tarda** to manage iron levels as a potential precipitating factor [2]. - It helps alleviate symptoms and prevent complications associated with **photosensitivity** and skin lesions [2].
Orthopaedics
3 questionsMedial snapping knee syndrome is due to involvement of -
Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -
The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Orthopaedics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Medial snapping knee syndrome is due to involvement of -
- A. Gastrocnemius origin
- B. Lateral collateral ligament
- C. Quadriceps Tendon
- D. Pes Anserinus (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Pes Anserinus*** - The **pes anserinus bursa** and its associated tendons (sartorius, gracilis, semitendinosus) can cause medial knee pain and snapping if inflamed or irritated. - This is a common cause of **medial snapping knee syndrome**, particularly in athletes or individuals with valgus deformity. *Quadriceps Tendon* - The **quadriceps tendon** is located anteriorly, connecting the quadriceps muscles to the patella, and is not typically involved in medial snapping. - Issues with the quadriceps tendon usually present as anterior knee pain or tendinitis. *Gastrocnemius origin* - The **gastrocnemius origin** is at the distal femur and its involvement would typically cause posterior knee pain or symptoms related to calf muscle function. - It does not commonly cause medial knee snapping. *Lateral collateral ligament* - The **lateral collateral ligament (LCL)** is on the lateral side of the knee and its involvement would cause lateral knee pain or instability. - It is not associated with medial snapping knee syndrome.
Question 1082: Flexor Digitorum Profundus tendon avulsion injury leads to -
- A. Jersey Finger (Correct Answer)
- B. Extensor tendon injury
- C. Ulnar collateral ligament injury
- D. Central slip injury
Explanation: ***Jersey Finger*** - **Jersey finger** is a common name for an avulsion injury of the **flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) tendon** from its insertion on the distal phalanx. - This injury typically occurs when the finger is forcibly extended while the FDP tendon is contracting, often seen in sports where a player grabs an opponent's jersey. *Extensor tendon injury* - An **extensor tendon injury** involves the tendons on the dorsal side of the hand, responsible for extending the fingers. - This is distinct from a **flexor tendon injury**, which involves tendons on the palmar side. *Ulnar collateral ligament injury* - An **ulnar collateral ligament (UCL) injury** most commonly affects the thumb's metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint, often called **"skier's thumb"**. - This injury involves damage to the ligament supporting the joint, not an avulsion of a flexor tendon. *Central slip injury* - A **central slip injury** affects the middle slip of the extensor digitorum communis tendon over the proximal interphalangeal (PIP) joint. - Untreated, it can lead to a **Boutonnière deformity**, which is characterized by PIP joint flexion and distal interphalangeal (DIP) joint hyperextension.
Question 1083: The K nail can be used for all of the following types of fractures except -
- A. Isthmic femur shaft fractures
- B. Intertrochanteric fractures (Correct Answer)
- C. Low subtrochanteric fractures
- D. Distal femur shaft fractures
Explanation: ***Intertrochanteric fractures*** - The K nail (specifically, the Kuntscher nail) is a **straight intramedullary nail** primarily designed for diaphyseal fractures. - It is **not suitable for intertrochanteric fractures** as these are metaphyseal and involve the proximal femur, requiring implants that offer greater stability in this region, such as cephalomedullary nails or plates. *Isthmic femur shaft fractures* - The **Kuntscher nail** was originally developed for and is well-suited for **isthmic femur shaft fractures** due to the narrow canal providing good cortical fixation. - Its design as a straight, broad nail fits snugly in the isthmus, providing excellent stability. *Low subtrochanteric fractures* - While more challenging, **K nails can be used for low subtrochanteric fractures**, especially if the fracture extends into the diaphyseal region. - However, newer implants like **cephalomedullary nails** are often preferred due to better biomechanical stability in this region. *Distal femur shaft fractures* - **K nails can be employed for distal femoral shaft fractures** if the fracture pattern allows for adequate fixation distal to the isthmus without compromising knee joint function. - The nail must be long enough to achieve stability, and the lack of proper locking mechanisms in traditional K nails may be a limiting factor compared to locked intramedullary nails.
Pediatrics
1 questionsMost common site for bone marrow aspiration in neonates is -
NEET-PG 2015 - Pediatrics NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Most common site for bone marrow aspiration in neonates is -
- A. Anterior superior iliac crest
- B. Posterior superior iliac crest
- C. Sternum
- D. Anteromedial tibia (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Anteromedial tibia*** - The **anteromedial tibia** is the preferred site in neonates due to its relatively **large marrow cavity**, superficial location, and reduced risk of vital organ injury. - This site is easily accessible and provides a good yield of marrow cells, making it suitable for diagnostic purposes in newborns. *Anterior superior iliac crest* - While a common site for bone marrow aspiration in older children and adults, the **anterior superior iliac crest** can be more challenging and poses a greater risk in neonates due to their smaller bone structures. - The iliac crest offers less bony prominence and a thinner cortex in neonates, increasing the difficulty of the procedure and potential for sampling error. *Posterior superior iliac crest* - The **posterior superior iliac crest** is another common site in older children and adults but is generally avoided in neonates due to the difficulty in positioning and the risk of damaging vital structures in the vicinity. - It requires prone positioning and offers less superficial bone, making it a less practical and safe choice for neonates compared to the tibia. *Sternum* - **Sternal aspiration** is generally contraindicated in neonates and young children due to the thinness of the sternal bone and proximity to vital structures like the heart and great vessels. - There is a high risk of **perforation** of the sternum and injury to underlying organs, making this site unsafe for bone marrow aspiration in this age group.
Physiology
1 questionsOsteoclasts have all of the following functions except -
NEET-PG 2015 - Physiology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 1081: Osteoclasts have all of the following functions except -
- A. Receptor for parathormone (Correct Answer)
- B. Ruffled border
- C. Bone resorption
- D. RANK ligand production
Explanation: ***Receptor for parathormone*** - **Osteoclasts** do not directly have receptors for **parathormone (PTH)**; instead, **osteoblasts** have PTH receptors. - When PTH binds to osteoblasts, they release factors (like **RANKL**) that stimulate osteoclast activity, thus indirectly regulating bone resorption. *Bone resorption* - **Osteoclasts** are specialized cells primarily responsible for **resorbing bone matrix**, a critical process in bone remodeling. - They secrete **acids and enzymes** to break down the mineral and organic components of bone. *Ruffled border* - The **ruffled border** is a characteristic morphological feature of active osteoclasts, representing a highly folded plasma membrane. - This specialized structure increases the surface area for the secretion of **protons and lysosomal enzymes** into the bone-resorbing compartment. *RANK ligand production* - **Osteoclasts** do not produce **RANK ligand (RANKL)**; rather, they have **RANK receptors** that bind to RANKL produced by **osteoblasts and stromal cells**. - The binding of RANKL to RANK is essential for the **differentiation, activation, and survival** of osteoclasts.