Which fetal presentation is the rarest?
Which of the following statements about cholestasis of pregnancy is false?
Vaginal pH before puberty is?
What is the typical pH of the vagina in a pregnant woman?
Decidual reaction is due to which hormone?
Nuchal translucency is used in
What is the definitive management for adenomyosis?
A 35 year old female with history of repeated D&C now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?
Tdap vaccine is given in between which weeks of pregnancy?
6 year old son of pregnant woman is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant woman?
NEET-PG 2012 - Obstetrics and Gynecology NEET-PG Practice Questions and MCQs
Question 21: Which fetal presentation is the rarest?
- A. Cephalic
- B. Breech
- C. Shoulder (Correct Answer)
- D. Face
Explanation: ***Shoulder*** - **Shoulder presentation** (also known as a **transverse lie**) occurs in approximately **0.3% of pregnancies** at term, making it the rarest presentation among the major fetal lie categories. - In this presentation, the fetal long axis is perpendicular to the maternal long axis, and the **shoulder** is typically the presenting part. - Vaginal delivery is not possible, and **cesarean section is mandatory**. *Cephalic* - **Cephalic presentation** is the most common presentation, occurring in about **95% of pregnancies**. - In this presentation, the fetal head is directed downwards towards the maternal pelvis. - This includes vertex, face, brow, and other head-first presentations. *Breech* - **Breech presentation** occurs when the fetal buttocks or feet are the presenting part, seen in about **3-4% of term pregnancies**. - While less common than cephalic, it is significantly more frequent than shoulder presentation. - Includes frank, complete, and footling breech variants. *Face* - **Face presentation** is a rare variant of cephalic presentation where the **fetal face** (chin/mentum) is the presenting part, occurring in about **0.2-0.3% of deliveries**. - The fetal head is hyperextended, with the occiput against the fetal back. - While rare, it is still slightly more common than shoulder presentation in some studies.
Question 22: Which of the following statements about cholestasis of pregnancy is false?
- A. Bilirubin level >2mg%
- B. Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy (Correct Answer)
- C. Oestrogen is involved
- D. Manifestations usually appear in last trimester
Explanation: ***Most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy*** - This statement is **FALSE** - while **intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy (ICP)** is the most common **pregnancy-specific** cause of jaundice, it is NOT the most common cause of jaundice overall in pregnancy. - **Viral hepatitis** (especially hepatitis A, B, and E) remains the **most common cause of jaundice in pregnancy** worldwide, accounting for approximately 40-50% of cases. - ICP accounts for about 20-25% of jaundice cases in pregnancy, making it the leading obstetric-specific cause but not the overall leading cause. *Bilirubin level >2mg%* - In ICP, **bilirubin levels** are typically **normal or only mildly elevated** (usually <4 mg/dL, often <2 mg/dL). - However, bilirubin **can exceed 2 mg/dL** in some cases of ICP, particularly in more severe presentations. - The primary diagnostic marker is elevated **serum bile acids** (>10 μmol/L), not bilirubin. *Oestrogen is involved* - **TRUE** - Elevated **estrogen and progesterone levels** during pregnancy play a key role in ICP pathophysiology. - These hormones affect **hepatic bile salt transporters** (particularly BSEP and MDR3), leading to impaired bile secretion in genetically susceptible individuals. *Manifestations usually appear in last trimester* - **TRUE** - ICP typically presents in the **third trimester** (usually after 28 weeks), with **pruritus** as the predominant symptom. - Symptoms resolve within days to weeks after delivery, correlating with declining hormone levels.
Question 23: Vaginal pH before puberty is?
- A. Approximately 6
- B. Approximately 4.5
- C. Approximately 5
- D. Neutral (around 7) (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***Neutral (around 7)*** - Before puberty, the vagina lacks the influence of **estrogen**, which is essential for the colonization of **Lactobacillus** bacteria. - Without Lactobacillus, there is no significant production of lactic acid, resulting in a **neutral pH** environment. *Approximately 6* - A pH of approximately 6 is still slightly acidic but less so than a mature vagina. - This value is not typical for the prepubertal stage, which generally represents an environment without significant acidic production. *Approximately 4.5* - A pH of approximately 4.5 is characteristic of a **healthy, estrogenized adult vagina** where **Lactobacillus** bacteria produce lactic acid. - This acidic environment is crucial for protecting against pathogenic infections and is not found in prepubertal individuals. *Approximately 5* - A pH of approximately 5 is acidic, though less so than the optimal adult vaginal pH. - This value indicates some lactic acid production, which is minimal or absent before the onset of puberty.
Question 24: What is the typical pH of the vagina in a pregnant woman?
- A. 4.0 (Correct Answer)
- B. 4.5
- C. 5
- D. >5
Explanation: ***4.0*** - The typical vaginal pH in a pregnant woman is **acidic**, generally ranging from 3.5 to 4.5, with **4.0 being the most commonly cited average value** during pregnancy. - This **acidic environment** is crucial for maintaining a healthy vaginal flora, primarily dominated by **Lactobacillus species**, which produce lactic acid from glycogen deposits in vaginal epithelium. - The increased estrogen levels during pregnancy promote glycogen deposition, supporting lactobacilli growth and maintaining this acidic pH. *4.5* - While 4.5 is **also within the normal range** (3.5-4.5) for pregnant women, it represents the **upper limit** of normal vaginal pH during pregnancy. - Although still physiologic, **4.0 is more commonly referenced** as the typical value in obstetric literature, making it the best answer for "typical" pH. - A pH consistently at 4.5 or trending upward may warrant monitoring, though it is not necessarily pathological. *5* - A pH of 5 is considered **elevated** and is typically associated with conditions like **bacterial vaginosis** (BV) or **trichomoniasis**, which increase the risk of preterm labor and other complications. - A pH of 5 in pregnancy would raise suspicion and warrant further investigation, as it indicates a **less acidic** environment and disruption of normal lactobacilli-dominated flora. - This elevated pH suggests loss of the protective acidic environment. *>5* - A pH greater than 5 is **abnormal** for a pregnant woman and strongly suggests the presence of a **vaginal infection**, such as bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis, or aerobic vaginitis. - This **alkaline shift** favors the growth of pathogenic bacteria over beneficial lactobacilli, significantly increasing the risk of adverse pregnancy outcomes including preterm birth and chorioamnionitis. - Requires prompt evaluation and treatment.
Question 25: Decidual reaction is due to which hormone?
- A. Progesterone (Correct Answer)
- B. Estrogen
- C. LH
- D. FSH
Explanation: ***Progesterone*** - The **decidual reaction** is a specific uterine stromal cell differentiation process that prepares the endometrium for **implantation and pregnancy maintenance**. - This process is primarily induced and maintained by **progesterone**, which causes stromal cells to enlarge, accumulate glycogen and lipids, and secrete various factors essential for embryonic development. *Estrogen* - Estrogen plays a crucial role in the **proliferation of the endometrium** during the follicular phase, building up the uterine lining. - While estrogen is essential, it acts in conjunction with progesterone; progesterone is the **primary hormone** responsible for the decidualization process itself. *LH* - Luteinizing hormone (LH) is responsible for triggering **ovulation** and stimulating the corpus luteum to produce progesterone. - LH's direct role is not in the decidual reaction of the endometrium but rather in the **ovarian events** that lead to the production of the hormones that cause decidualization. *FSH* - Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) is vital for the growth and maturation of **ovarian follicles** and **estrogen production**. - FSH does not directly induce the decidual reaction but facilitates the production of estrogen, which then contributes to endometrial proliferation, a precursor to progesterone's decidualizing effect.
Question 26: Nuchal translucency is used in
- A. Head scan
- B. MRI neck
- C. ANC USG (Correct Answer)
- D. Anthropometry
Explanation: ***ANC USG*** - **Nuchal translucency** measurement is a key component of the **first-trimester antenatal ultrasound** (ANC USG). - It helps in screening for chromosomal abnormalities like **Down syndrome (Trisomy 21)** and certain cardiac defects. *Head scan* - A head scan (e.g., CT or MRI of the head) is used to evaluate the **brain** and **skull** for conditions like tumors, strokes, or trauma. - It is not routinely used for fetal screening or nuchal translucency assessment. *MRI neck* - **MRI of the neck** is employed to visualize soft tissues, blood vessels, and bones in the neck region. - Its primary use is in diagnosing conditions like cervical disc herniations, spinal cord compression, or neck masses, not for fetal screening. *Anthropometry* - **Anthropometry** involves the measurement of the human body, such as height, weight, and limb circumference. - While general measurements are taken during pregnancy, anthropometry specifically does not refer to the assessment of nuchal translucency.
Question 27: What is the definitive management for adenomyosis?
- A. Endometrial ablation.
- B. Hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus). (Correct Answer)
- C. Hormonal therapy (e.g., Danazol) for temporary symptom relief.
- D. Hormonal therapy (e.g., GnRH analogue) for temporary symptom relief.
Explanation: ***Hysterectomy (surgical removal of the uterus)*** - This is considered the **definitive management** for adenomyosis because it completely removes the uterine tissue where the ectopic endometrial glands are found. - Hysterectomy effectively eliminates the source of symptoms such as **heavy menstrual bleeding** and **pelvic pain** by removing the uterus entirely. *Endometrial ablation* - Endometrial ablation involves destroying the **lining of the uterus** and is primarily used for heavy menstrual bleeding. - It is **ineffective for adenomyosis** since the endometrial tissue is embedded deep within the myometrium and is not fully reached by ablation. *Hormonal therapy (e.g., Danazol) for temporary symptom relief* - **Danazol** (an androgen derivative) can suppress ovarian function and reduce symptoms of adenomyosis by shrinking endometrial tissue. - However, its effects are **temporary**, and symptoms typically return upon cessation of treatment, making it not a definitive solution. *Hormonal therapy (e.g., GNRH analogue) for temporary symptom relief* - **GnRH analogues** induce a temporary menopausal state, which can significantly reduce symptoms by inhibiting estrogen production, leading to atrophy of the adenomyotic tissue. - This treatment is also **temporary**, and symptoms often recur once the medication is stopped; it's often used as a bridge to surgery or for women nearing menopause.
Question 28: A 35 year old female with history of repeated D&C now has secondary amenorrhea. What is your diagnosis?
- A. Asherman's syndrome (Correct Answer)
- B. Hypothyroidism
- C. Kallman syndrome
- D. Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation: ***Asherman's syndrome*** - This syndrome is characterized by the formation of **intrauterine adhesions** or scar tissue following uterine trauma, often from repeated **Dilation and Curettage (D&C)** procedures. - The adhesions can prevent the normal growth and shedding of the **endometrial lining**, leading to **secondary amenorrhea** and infertility. *Hypothyroidism* - While hypothyroidism can cause menstrual irregularities, including **amenorrhea**, it would not typically be linked to a history of **repeated D&C procedures**. - The mechanism involves **hormonal imbalances** (e.g., elevated **TRH leading to elevated prolactin**), not scarring of the uterus. *Kallman syndrome* - This is a rare genetic condition causing **hypogonadotropic hypogonadism** and **anosmia** (loss of smell), leading to **primary amenorrhea**. - It does not involve uterine scarring and is not associated with D&C procedures or **secondary amenorrhea**. *Sheehan's syndrome* - Sheehan's syndrome is **postpartum hypopituitarism** caused by **ischemic necrosis of the pituitary gland** after severe hemorrhage during or after childbirth. - It would present with symptoms like **lactation failure** and could cause **secondary amenorrhea**, but it is not related to repeated D&C procedures.
Question 29: Tdap vaccine is given in between which weeks of pregnancy?
- A. 10-16 weeks
- B. 17-22 weeks
- C. 22-26 weeks
- D. 27-36 weeks (Correct Answer)
Explanation: ***27-36 weeks*** - The **Tdap vaccine** is recommended during this window in **every pregnancy** to maximize the transfer of **maternal antibodies** to the fetus. - This timing provides effective protection against **pertussis (whooping cough)** for the newborn from birth until their own vaccinations begin. *10-16 weeks* - This period is generally too early for optimal **passive immunity transfer** to the fetus against pertussis. - While other vaccines might be considered, **Tdap is specifically timed later** for maximum antibody benefit. *17-22 weeks* - This window is also typically considered too early for the Tdap vaccine to provide the **highest level of antibody transfer** to the newborn. - The goal is to administer the vaccine when **maternal antibody levels peak closer to delivery**. *22-26 weeks* - While closer to the recommended timeframe, this still falls slightly outside the **optimal window (27-36 weeks)** for the Tdap vaccine. - Delaying slightly longer ensures **peak antibody levels** for the longest possible passive immunity.
Question 30: 6 year old son of pregnant woman is suffering from chicken pox. Which of the following is given to pregnant woman?
- A. Acyclovir + immunoglobulin
- B. Only immunoglobulin (Correct Answer)
- C. Vaccination
- D. Acyclovir
Explanation: ***Only immunoglobulin*** - Giving **immunoglobulin** to a pregnant woman exposed to **chickenpox** provides immediate passive immunity, which is crucial as she is at risk of infection from her child. - This is particularly important because chickenpox during pregnancy can lead to severe maternal disease and congenital varicella syndrome in the fetus. *Acyclovir + immunoglobulin* - **Acyclovir** is an antiviral that treats active varicella infection but is not typically given prophylactically in combination with immunoglobulin for exposure unless the woman is already immunocompromised or develops symptoms. - The primary goal for exposed pregnant women is preventing infection through passive immunity, not immediately treating a potential infection. *Vaccination* - **Varicella vaccine** is a live attenuated vaccine and is **contraindicated** during pregnancy due to the theoretical risk of fetal infection. - It is used for pre-conception immunity or post-exposure prophylaxis in non-pregnant individuals if given within a short window, but not for pregnant women. *Acyclovir* - **Acyclovir** is an antiviral medicine used to treat active chickenpox infections, not to prevent infection immediately after exposure. - It would be considered if the pregnant woman develops symptoms of chickenpox, but not as a primary prophylactic measure in this scenario.